UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQ) · free practice

UPSC Prelims 2022 MCQs

56 questions with answers and explanations. Tap an option — the correct answer and the explanation appear instantly. Useful for UPSC Prelims, BPSC, UPPSC, MPPSC and UKPSC.

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QUESTION 1 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of these statements is/are correct: (1) a person could become a slave as a result of a judicial punishment; (2) if a female slave bore her master a son, she became legally free; (3) a son born to a female slave, fathered by her master, was entitled to the legal status of the master's own son?
Explanation: The Arthashastra recognises judicial enslavement, freedom for a female slave who bears her master's child, and legitimate status for such a child as the master's son, so all three statements hold.
QUESTION 2 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Consider these historical-figure pairs: Aryadeva - Jain scholar; Dignaga - Buddhist scholar; Nathamuni - Vaishnava scholar. How many pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Aryadeva was actually a Buddhist Madhyamaka philosopher (disciple of Nagarjuna), not a Jain scholar, so that pair is wrong; Dignaga (Buddhist logician) and Nathamuni (Vaishnava Alvar scholar) are correctly matched.
QUESTION 3 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] In medieval India, the term 'Fanam' referred to:
Explanation: Fanam was a small gold or copper coin used widely in medieval south India.
QUESTION 4 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Mongol incursions into India: (1) the first Mongol invasion occurred under Jalal-ud-din Khalji; (2) under Ala-ud-din Khalji a Mongol force advanced to and besieged Delhi; (3) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq briefly lost north-western territory to the Mongols. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The first Mongol invasion did happen under Jalal-ud-din Khalji, and Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq briefly lost north-western lands to the Mongols, but no Mongol army besieged Delhi itself during Ala-ud-din Khalji's reign.
QUESTION 5 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Who were historically referred to as 'Kulah-Daran' (cap-wearers)?
Explanation: 'Kulah-Daran' was a term used for the Sayyids, referring to their distinctive cap/headgear.
QUESTION 6 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Consider king-dynasty pairs: Nannuka-Chandela; Jayashakti-Paramara; Nagabhata II-Gurjara Pratihara; Bhoja-Rashtrakuta. How many pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Nannuka founded the Chandela line and Nagabhata II belonged to the Gurjara-Pratiharas (both correct); Jayashakti actually belonged to the Chandelas, and Bhoja was a Paramara ruler, so only two pairs truly match.
QUESTION 7 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] The philosophical work 'Yogavasistha' was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during whose reign?
Explanation: This translation was part of Akbar's broader project of rendering Sanskrit texts into Persian.
QUESTION 8 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which teaching is correctly attributed to the philosopher-saint Ramanuja?
Explanation: Ramanuja, founder of Vishishtadvaita philosophy, held loving devotion (bhakti) to a personal God as the principal path to salvation.
QUESTION 9 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Under the Government of India Act 1919, provincial subjects were split into 'Reserved' and 'Transferred' categories. Which of these were treated as 'Reserved': Administration of Justice, Local Self-Government, Land Revenue, Police?
Explanation: Justice, Land Revenue and Police remained 'Reserved' subjects under the Governor's direct control, while Local Self-Government was among the 'Transferred' subjects handed to Indian ministers under dyarchy.
QUESTION 10 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Among these freedom fighters - Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, Rash Behari Bose - who was actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
Explanation: Rash Behari Bose was a key organiser linked to Ghadar Party activities, while the other two were chiefly tied to Bengal's revolutionary movement.
QUESTION 11 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Cripps Mission's 1942 proposals: (1) the proposed Constituent Assembly would include members nominated by Provincial Assemblies as well as by Princely States; (2) any province unwilling to accept the new constitution could sign a separate agreement with Britain on its future status. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Both provisions genuinely featured in the Cripps proposals, allowing princely-state representation in the Constituent Assembly and an opt-out mechanism for unwilling provinces.
QUESTION 12 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding early European trading posts in India: (1) the Dutch established factories on the east coast on land granted by Gajapati rulers; (2) Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate; (3) the English East India Company set up a factory at Madras on land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Albuquerque did seize Goa from Bijapur's sultan, and Madras (Fort St. George) was built on land leased from a local Vijayanagara-linked chieftain, but the Dutch factories on the east coast were granted by Golconda and other regional rulers, not the Gajapatis.
QUESTION 13 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding contempt of court in India: (1) the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee; (2) the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish contempt of themselves; (3) the Constitution itself defines Civil and Criminal Contempt; (4) Parliament has the power to legislate on contempt of court. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The 1971 Act followed the Sanyal Committee's report, the Constitution empowers courts to punish contempt of themselves, and Parliament can legislate on the subject - but it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution, that defines civil and criminal contempt.
QUESTION 14 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding legal practice in India: (1) government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, while corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded; (2) Bar Councils can frame rules on legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Bar Councils do regulate legal education standards and recognise law colleges, but statement 1 misdescribes the actual rules on advocate recognition.
QUESTION 15 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding constitutional amendment bills: (1) a bill amending the Constitution requires prior Presidential recommendation; (2) the President must give assent to any Constitution Amendment Bill presented; (3) such a bill must be passed by both Houses by special majority, with no joint-sitting provision. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Unlike ordinary bills, a Constitution Amendment Bill needs no prior Presidential recommendation before introduction, and there is indeed no joint-sitting mechanism for it - both true; assent, once passed, is not a discretionary matter as statement 2 implies.
QUESTION 16 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Union Council of Ministers: (1) the Constitution itself classifies ministers into Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister ranks; (2) total ministers including the PM cannot exceed 15% of the Lok Sabha's total membership. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The 15% cap on Council of Ministers size (91st Amendment) is a genuine constitutional provision, but the four-tier ministerial classification is a matter of convention/practice, not something the Constitution's text lays out.
QUESTION 17 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha: ratifying an Emergency declaration; passing a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers; impeaching the President of India?
Explanation: Only the Lok Sabha can move and pass a no-confidence motion against the government; ratifying an Emergency and impeaching the President require action by both Houses of Parliament.
QUESTION 18 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding India's anti-defection law: (1) it bars a nominated legislator from joining a political party within six months of appointment; (2) it sets no timeframe within which the presiding officer must decide a defection case. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe any timeframe for the Speaker/Chairman to decide defection petitions, a much-criticised gap, but does not impose the six-month bar described in statement 1 as stated.
QUESTION 19 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Attorney General of India: (1) the AG and Solicitor General are the only government officers permitted to participate in Parliament's proceedings; (2) the AG automatically resigns when the government that appointed them resigns. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Neither statement is correct - other officers can participate in Parliament in specific limited ways, and while the AG conventionally offers to resign upon a change of government, there is no strict automatic constitutional requirement to do so.
QUESTION 20 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding writs in India: (1) mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty; (2) mandamus will not lie against a company even if it is a government company; (3) any public-spirited person can petition for a writ of quo warranto. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Mandamus can lie against a private body discharging a public duty, and any interested member of the public can seek quo warranto - but mandamus can in fact lie against a government company performing public functions, making statement 2 incorrect.
QUESTION 21 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha: (1) the Rules of Procedure let the Speaker fix the date of the Deputy Speaker's election; (2) there is a mandatory rule that the Deputy Speaker come from either the principal opposition or the ruling party; (3) the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers as the Speaker while presiding, with no appeal against rulings; (4) established practice is for the Speaker to move the election motion, seconded by the Prime Minister. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The Speaker does fix the election date, and the Deputy Speaker's presiding powers and the finality of rulings mirror the Speaker's, but there is no mandatory party-linked rule for the post, nor is the motion conventionally moved by the Speaker and seconded by the PM.
QUESTION 22 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, what is the main consequence?
Explanation: Fifth Schedule areas receive special protections, chiefly restricting the transfer/alienation of tribal land to non-tribal people, to safeguard tribal interests.
QUESTION 23 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'Rapid Financing Instrument' and 'Rapid Credit Facility' are related to lending provisions of which institution: Asian Development Bank, International Monetary Fund, UNEP Finance Initiative, World Bank?
Explanation: Both are emergency lending facilities offered by the International Monetary Fund to member countries facing urgent balance-of-payments needs.
QUESTION 24 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding exchange rates: (1) a rise in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates rupee appreciation; (2) a rise in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates improved trade competitiveness; (3) rising domestic inflation relative to other countries tends to widen the divergence between NEER and REER. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: A rising REER actually signals declining, not improving, trade competitiveness because it reflects inflation-adjusted currency appreciation, whereas statements 1 and 3 are accurate.
QUESTION 25 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the RBI's inflation and currency management: (1) if inflation is too high, RBI is likely to buy government securities; (2) if the rupee is depreciating rapidly, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market; (3) if interest rates in the US/EU were to fall, that would likely induce RBI to buy dollars. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: To fight high inflation RBI would actually sell (not buy) government securities to absorb liquidity, while selling dollars to defend the rupee and buying dollars when foreign rates fall (to curb excess appreciation) are accurate steps.
QUESTION 26 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the 'G20 Common Framework': (1) it is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club; (2) it is meant to support Low Income Countries facing unsustainable debt. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatment was launched jointly with Paris Club creditors specifically to help low-income countries manage unsustainable debt.
QUESTION 27 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] What are the advantages of Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs): (1) the government can lower coupon rates on borrowing via IIBs; (2) they protect investors against inflation uncertainty; (3) interest and capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: IIBs do let the government offer lower coupons while protecting investors from inflation risk, but interest and capital gains from IIBs are actually taxable in India, not exempt.
QUESTION 28 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India: (1) they can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces; (2) the degree to which they can own major sellers on their platforms is limited. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Under India's FDI policy for e-commerce, foreign-owned marketplace entities are actually barred from selling their own inventory directly, but their ownership stake in major platform sellers is indeed restricted.
QUESTION 29 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which activities constitute the 'real sector' of the economy: farmers harvesting crops; textile mills converting raw cotton into fabric; a commercial bank lending to a trading company; a corporate body issuing rupee-denominated bonds overseas?
Explanation: The real sector covers actual production of goods and services such as farming and manufacturing, while bank lending and overseas bond issuance are financial-sector activities.
QUESTION 30 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which situation best reflects 'Indirect Transfers' as discussed in Indian tax policy?
Explanation: 'Indirect transfer' taxation targets exactly this scenario - offshore share transfers whose value is substantially attributable to underlying Indian assets.
QUESTION 31 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding organisational expenditure classification: (1) acquiring new technology counts as capital expenditure; (2) debt financing counts as capital expenditure while equity financing counts as revenue expenditure. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Acquiring new technology is indeed capital expenditure, but the choice of financing (debt vs equity) is a separate financing decision, unrelated to the capital/revenue expenditure classification.
QUESTION 32 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission: (1) both private and public hospitals must mandatorily adopt it; (2) it aims for universal citizen coverage eventually; (3) it offers seamless portability across the country. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Adoption of the Mission by hospitals and citizens is voluntary rather than mandatory, but it is indeed designed to offer seamless health-record portability nationwide.
QUESTION 33 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding US Federal Reserve tightening and External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs): (1) tight US Fed policy could lead to capital flight; (2) capital flight may raise the interest cost of firms with existing ECBs; (3) devaluing the domestic currency decreases the currency risk tied to ECBs. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Domestic currency devaluation actually increases, not decreases, the repayment burden and currency risk on foreign-currency ECBs, while the first two statements about Fed tightening and capital flight are accurate.
QUESTION 34 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding credit rating agencies in India: (1) they are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India; (2) ICRA is a public limited company; (3) Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Credit rating agencies in India are actually regulated by SEBI, not the RBI, while ICRA being a public limited company and Brickwork Ratings being an Indian agency are both accurate.
QUESTION 35 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)': (1) the Governor of RBI is its Chairman; (2) it recommends heads for Public Sector Banks; (3) it helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The BBB is chaired by an eminent person appointed by the government, not the RBI Governor, while its roles in recommending PSB leadership and advising on strategy/capital plans are accurate.
QUESTION 36 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Convertible Bonds: (1) since holders have the option to convert to equity, such bonds pay a lower interest rate; (2) this conversion option protects the bondholder against rising consumer prices. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Convertible bonds do carry lower coupon rates because of the equity-conversion sweetener, but the conversion feature is not designed as, and does not function as, an inflation-hedging mechanism.
QUESTION 37 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] In India, which body is primarily responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
Explanation: The RBI, through its monetary policy framework and inflation-targeting mandate, is the primary institution responsible for controlling inflation and price stability.
QUESTION 38 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs): (1) they enable digital representation of physical assets; (2) they are unique cryptographic tokens existing on a blockchain; (3) they can be traded interchangeably at equivalency, so they function as a medium of commercial transactions. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: NFTs do represent digital assets as unique blockchain-based tokens, but by definition each NFT is non-fungible - not interchangeable at equivalent value like currency - making statement 3 incorrect.
QUESTION 39 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Among these crops, which is the most significant anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Explanation: Flooded paddy (rice) cultivation is a major anthropogenic source of methane from anaerobic decomposition, and also contributes significantly to nitrous oxide emissions from fertiliser use.
QUESTION 40 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Consider these wetland-location pairs as originally listed: Hokera Wetland - Punjab; Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh; Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura; Sasthamkotta - Tamil Nadu. How many pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Hokera Wetland is actually located in Jammu & Kashmir (not Punjab) and Sasthamkotta Lake is in Kerala (not Tamil Nadu), while Renuka Wetland (Himachal Pradesh) and Rudrasagar Lake (Tripura) are correctly matched.
QUESTION 41 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'Climate Action Tracker,' which monitors countries' emission-reduction pledges, is best described as:
Explanation: Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis produced by a consortium of research organisations, not a formal UN body.
QUESTION 42 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding global energy-efficiency and climate initiatives: (1) The Climate Group is an international non-profit driving climate action through large networks; (2) the International Energy Agency partnered with the Climate Group to launch 'EP100'; (3) EP100 brings together companies committed to energy-efficiency innovation and competitiveness while cutting emissions; (4) some Indian companies are EP100 members; (5) the IEA serves as Secretariat to the 'Under2 Coalition'. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: EP100 was actually launched by the Climate Group itself, not jointly with the IEA, and the Under2 Coalition's Secretariat is run by the Climate Group, not the IEA - but the Climate Group's role, EP100's goals, and Indian corporate membership are all accurate.
QUESTION 43 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'If rainforests are the lungs of the Earth, wetlands are its kidneys' - which function of wetlands best illustrates this analogy?
Explanation: Like kidneys filtering waste from blood, wetland plants filter out and absorb pollutants such as heavy metals and excess nutrients from water, purifying it.
QUESTION 44 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding WHO Air Quality Guidelines: (1) the 24-hour PM2.5 mean should not exceed 15 micrograms/m3 and the annual mean should not exceed 5 micrograms/m3; (2) ozone pollution peaks during periods of inclement (rainy) weather; (3) PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier into the bloodstream; (4) excess ozone can trigger asthma. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: WHO's guideline values for PM2.5 and ozone's asthma-triggering effect are accurate, but it is fine particulate PM2.5, not PM10, that can cross into the bloodstream, and ozone pollution actually peaks during hot, sunny weather rather than rainy weather.
QUESTION 45 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding 'Gucchi' (morel mushroom), sometimes mentioned in the news: (1) it is a fungus; (2) it grows in some Himalayan forest areas; (3) it is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Gucchi is indeed a wild fungus found in certain Himalayan forests, but it has not been successfully commercially cultivated at scale - it remains largely wild-harvested rather than farmed.
QUESTION 46 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding polyethylene terephthalate (PET), widely used in daily life: (1) its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties; (2) containers made of it can safely store any alcoholic beverage; (3) bottles made of it can be recycled into other products; (4) articles made of it can be incinerated without any greenhouse gas emissions. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: PET fibres are genuinely blended into textiles and PET is genuinely recyclable, but it is not suitable for storing all alcoholic beverages, especially high-alcohol-content ones, and its incineration does release greenhouse gases.
QUESTION 47 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these is NOT a bird?
Explanation: The Golden Mahseer is actually a large freshwater game fish, whereas the other three are all bird species.
QUESTION 48 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these are nitrogen-fixing plants: Alfalfa, Amaranth, Chickpea, Clover, Purslane, Spinach?
Explanation: Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes capable of nitrogen fixation via root-nodule bacteria, while amaranth, purslane and spinach are non-leguminous plants without this capacity.
QUESTION 49 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'Biorock technology' is talked about in which situation?
Explanation: Biorock technology uses low-voltage electrical currents to accrete minerals onto submerged structures, accelerating coral growth and reef restoration.
QUESTION 50 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] The 'Miyawaki method' is well known for:
Explanation: The Miyawaki method is a Japanese afforestation technique for rapidly growing dense, native mini-forests, especially suited to urban spaces.
QUESTION 51 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
Explanation: The Central Ground Water Authority was established using powers delegated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically to regulate groundwater extraction.
QUESTION 52 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which statement best describes the 'Polar Code'?
Explanation: The Polar Code is an International Maritime Organization instrument establishing safety and environmental standards for ships operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters.
QUESTION 53 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which best describes the term 'greenwashing'?
Explanation: Greenwashing refers to companies deceptively marketing their products or practices as more environmentally friendly than they actually are.
QUESTION 54 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Indian wildlife-protection law: (1) wild animals are the sole property of the government; (2) once declared protected, an animal receives equal protection whether found inside or outside a protected area; (3) mere apprehension that a protected animal poses danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Under the Wildlife Protection Act, wild animals are legally state property, and protected species get uniform legal protection regardless of location, but capture or killing actually requires more than mere apprehension of danger - it needs a determination of genuine, imminent threat.
QUESTION 55 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Certain species of which of these organisms are well known for cultivating fungi as a food source?
Explanation: Certain ant species, notably leafcutter ants, cultivate fungus gardens as their primary food source, a striking example of agriculture in the animal kingdom.
QUESTION 56 OF 56
[UPSC Prelims 2022] Excess of which of these in the environment is a cause of acid rain: carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, ozone, sulphur dioxide?
Explanation: Nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide react with atmospheric moisture to form nitric and sulphuric acids, the chief chemical causes of acid rain; carbon monoxide and ozone are not major contributors.
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