QUESTION 1 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which ancient town is renowned for its elaborate water-harvesting system of dams and channels feeding a series of interconnected reservoirs?
Explanation: Dholavira, a major Harappan site in Gujarat, is famous for its sophisticated reservoirs, dams and channels for water conservation.
QUESTION 2 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Between the decline of the Guptas and the rise of Harshavardhana in the early 7th century, which of these dynasties held power in northern India: Later Guptas of Magadha, Paramaras of Malwa, Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, Maukharis of Kanauj, Yadavas of Devagiri, Maitrakas of Valabhi?
Explanation: The Later Guptas, Pushyabhutis, Maukharis and Maitrakas were active in this era, while the Paramaras (9th century) and Yadavas (12th century) rose much later.
QUESTION 3 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] With reference to ancient Indian civil law codes, which is correct: under the Mitakshara system sons could claim rights to family property during the father's lifetime, whereas under the Dayabhaga system such a claim arose only after the father's death?
Explanation: This is the genuine key procedural difference between Mitakshara and Dayabhaga inheritance law; claims that the codes were caste-specific, or covered only male-held property, misrepresent the actual legal systems.
QUESTION 4 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara of ancient India were noted as:
Explanation: All three were celebrated Sanskrit dramatists of ancient/early-medieval India.
QUESTION 5 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these pairs are correctly matched: Burzahom - rock-cut shrines; Chandraketugarh - terracotta art; Ganeshwar - copper artefacts?
Explanation: Burzahom is a Neolithic-Megalithic site known for pit-dwellings, not rock-cut shrines; Chandraketugarh is genuinely famed for terracotta art, and Ganeshwar for Copper Hoard Culture artefacts.
QUESTION 6 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] According to the Portuguese chronicler Nuniz, women at the Vijayanagara court excelled in which pursuits: wrestling, astrology, accounting, soothsaying?
Explanation: Nuniz's account describes Vijayanagara women skilled across a striking range of fields, including wrestling, astrology, bookkeeping and soothsaying.
QUESTION 7 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Consider: (1) Chengiz Khan reached the Indus during Iltutmish's reign while chasing a fugitive Khwarezmian prince; (2) Timur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus during Muhammad bin Tughluq's reign; (3) Vasco da Gama reached the Kerala coast during Deva Raya II's Vijayanagara reign. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Only the first statement is chronologically accurate - Timur's invasion actually took place under Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Tughluq, and Vasco da Gama arrived in 1498, after Deva Raya II's reign had ended.
QUESTION 8 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] In Mughal administrative geography, what is the correct ascending order of units by size?
Explanation: The Mughal revenue hierarchy rose from the small Paragana, to the larger Sarkar, up to the largest unit, the Suba (province).
QUESTION 9 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding regional successor states: (1) the Nizamat of Arcot arose out of Hyderabad state; (2) the Kingdom of Mysore emerged from the Vijayanagara empire; (3) Rohilkhand was carved from territory taken by Ahmad Shah Durrani. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The Nawabs of Arcot were indeed an offshoot of the Hyderabad Nizamat and Mysore emerged as a Vijayanagara successor state, but Rohilkhand was actually founded by Afghan Rohilla chiefs, unrelated to Durrani's conquests.
QUESTION 10 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] In the early 17th century, at which of these places did the English East India Company operate a factory: Broach, Chicacole, Trichinopoly?
Explanation: The Company's early factory network of that period included Broach in Gujarat; Chicacole and Trichinopoly were not yet English trading posts at that early stage.
QUESTION 11 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Madanapalle in Andhra Pradesh, which statement is correct?
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore rendered 'Jana Gana Mana' into English at the Besant Theosophical College in Madanapalle in 1919.
QUESTION 12 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding St. Francis Xavier: (1) he was among the founders of the Jesuit order; (2) he died and was later enshrined in Goa, where a church is dedicated to him; (3) his feast is celebrated annually in Goa. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: St. Francis Xavier co-founded the Society of Jesus, his remains were enshrined at Goa's Basilica of Bom Jesus, and his feast is indeed observed annually in Goa.
QUESTION 13 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding constitutional reforms affecting women: (1) the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended voting rights for all women above 21; (2) the Government of India Act, 1935 gave women reserved legislative seats. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The 1919 reforms did not grant universal women's suffrage (it remained a limited provincial option), whereas the 1935 Act did introduce reserved seats for women.
QUESTION 14 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding 8 August 1942 in Indian history, which statement is correct?
Explanation: The All India Congress Committee formally passed the Quit India Resolution on 8 August 1942 at its Bombay session.
QUESTION 15 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Who is associated with 'Songs from Prison', an English translation of ancient Indian devotional lyrics?
Explanation: Gandhi translated these devotional verses into English during his imprisonment, publishing them as 'Songs from Prison'.
QUESTION 16 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Who served as Secretary of the Hindu Female School, which was later renamed the Bethune Female School?
Explanation: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was closely involved in running and supporting this pioneering girls' school in Calcutta.
QUESTION 17 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered in colonial Indian history as:
Explanation: These three Indian National Army officers were famously tried together at the Red Fort trials for their role under Subhas Chandra Bose.
QUESTION 18 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth is seen to violate:
Explanation: Article 39(c), a Directive Principle, specifically directs the State to prevent the concentration of wealth to the common detriment.
QUESTION 19 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] What is the current legal status of the Right to Property in India?
Explanation: Since the 44th Amendment moved it out of Part III, the Right to Property under Article 300A is a legal right available to any person, not restricted to citizens.
QUESTION 20 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] What was India's exact constitutional status on 26 January 1950?
Explanation: The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble only later, by the 42nd Amendment (1976); in 1950 India was simply a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
QUESTION 21 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] What does 'constitutional government' essentially mean?
Explanation: A constitutional government is fundamentally one whose powers and actions are bound and limited by a written or unwritten constitution.
QUESTION 22 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards, which statement(s) are NOT correct: they are 'titles' under Article 18(1); Padma Awards (instituted 1954) were suspended only once; Bharat Ratna is capped at five awards per year?
Explanation: Courts have held these awards are not 'titles' under Article 18(1); the Padma Awards were actually suspended more than once in their history; and there is no fixed numerical cap on Bharat Ratna awards each year, only an informal convention of restraint.
QUESTION 23 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding judicial custody: (1) it means the accused is held under the magistrate's authority but lodged in a police station, not jail; (2) during judicial custody, the investigating officer cannot interrogate the suspect without court approval. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: In judicial custody the accused is actually lodged in jail (police-station lodging defines police custody instead), while questioning genuinely does require court permission.
QUESTION 24 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding parole in India: (1) if a prisoner makes a sufficiently strong case, parole cannot be denied since it becomes a matter of right; (2) State Governments have their own Prisoners' Release on Parole Rules. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Parole remains a discretionary privilege even in a strong case, not an absolute right, but states genuinely do frame their own parole release rules.
QUESTION 25 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which ministry is the nodal agency ensuring effective implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006?
Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is designated as the nodal ministry overseeing implementation of the Forest Rights Act.
QUESTION 26 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] A law that confers unguided, uncontrolled discretionary power on an executive authority violates which constitutional article?
Explanation: Such arbitrary, unguided discretion is held by courts to breach Article 14's guarantee of equality before law, which bars arbitrary state action.
QUESTION 27 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which feature best signifies the federal character of Indian polity?
Explanation: An independent judiciary capable of adjudicating Centre-State disputes and upholding the constitutional division of powers is a hallmark of a genuinely federal system.
QUESTION 28 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which definition best captures the political-theory term 'State'?
Explanation: This definition captures the classical elements of statehood: territory, population, government, and sovereignty/independence from external control.
QUESTION 29 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Indian judiciary: (1) a retired Supreme Court judge can be recalled to sit by the Chief Justice with the President's prior permission; (2) a High Court can review its own judgment just as the Supreme Court can. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Article 128 allows recalling retired Supreme Court judges with Presidential consent, and High Courts, like the Supreme Court, possess the power to review their own judgments.
QUESTION 30 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding citizenship in India: (1) there is only one citizenship and one domicile; (2) only a citizen by birth can become Head of State; (3) a naturalised citizen can never be deprived of citizenship under any circumstance. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: India has single, uniform citizenship with no separate state domicile - but a naturalised citizen can indeed become President (there is no birth requirement), and citizenship can be revoked under specified legal grounds.
QUESTION 31 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which factor best safeguards liberty in a liberal democracy?
Explanation: Distributing power among distinct branches of government (separation of powers) is considered the strongest institutional safeguard against tyranny and for individual liberty.
QUESTION 32 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] How does India's parliamentary model differ from the British model: (1) unlike Britain's sovereign Parliament, India's Parliament has limited law-making power; (2) constitutionality of an Act's amendment is often referred to a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Unlike the UK doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty, India's Parliament operates under a written Constitution subject to judicial review, with amendment validity often examined by Constitution Benches.
QUESTION 33 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding administrative reform in the Union Government: (1) a specific committee suggested designating a minister and secretary solely for administrative reform; (2) in 1970, the Department of Personnel was set up following the first Administrative Reforms Commission's recommendation, placed under the Prime Minister. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The Department of Personnel's 1970 creation, placed under the Prime Minister, did follow the first Administrative Reforms Commission's recommendation, though the specific committee credited in statement 1 is misattributed.
QUESTION 34 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Under which Article is the 'Right to Privacy' protected in India?
Explanation: The Supreme Court's Puttaswamy judgment (2017) recognised privacy as intrinsic to the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
QUESTION 35 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding contesting multiple Lok Sabha seats: (1) Indian law places no restriction on a candidate contesting from three constituencies at once; (2) in the 1991 elections, Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies; (3) if such a candidate wins all the seats, their party must bear the bye-election costs for the vacated seats. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The law actually caps contesting to a maximum of two constituencies, and it is the candidate/state (not the party) that bears bye-election costs, so only the historical fact about Devi Lal holds.
QUESTION 36 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] The money multiplier in an economy increases with which of these: a rise in the Cash Reserve Ratio; a rise in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio; a rise in the banking habits of the population; a rise in the country's population?
Explanation: Greater use of formal banking channels by the public raises the deposit multiplier effect, increasing the money multiplier; higher CRR and SLR actually reduce it.
QUESTION 37 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Demand-pull inflation in India can be caused/increased by which of these: expansionary policies, fiscal stimulus, inflation-indexed wages, higher purchasing power, rising interest rates?
Explanation: Expansionary policy, fiscal stimulus, and higher purchasing power all boost aggregate demand, causing demand-pull inflation; rising interest rates actually dampen demand, and wage indexation relates more to cost-push dynamics.
QUESTION 38 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding India's government-securities market: (1) retail investors can invest in Treasury Bills and G-Secs through Demat accounts in the primary market; (2) the 'Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching' is RBI's government-securities trading platform; (3) 'Central Depository Services Ltd' is jointly promoted by RBI and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Retail investors can indeed access G-Secs/T-Bills via Demat accounts in the primary market and NDS-OM is genuinely RBI's trading platform, but CDSL is actually promoted by the BSE along with other institutions, not jointly with the RBI.
QUESTION 39 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] In India, the central bank's role as 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of these: lending to trade/industry bodies when they fail to borrow elsewhere; providing liquidity to banks facing a temporary crisis; lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits?
Explanation: The lender-of-last-resort function specifically means providing emergency liquidity support to banks in temporary crisis, not general lending to industry or financing government deficits.
QUESTION 40 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding the RBI Governor: (1) appointed by the Central Government; (2) certain constitutional provisions give the Central Government the right to direct the RBI in public interest; (3) the Governor draws powers from the RBI Act. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The Governor is indeed appointed by the government and derives statutory powers from the RBI Act, but the government's power to direct the RBI comes from the RBI Act itself (Section 7), not directly from the Constitution.
QUESTION 41 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which action is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
Explanation: Counter-cyclical fiscal policy calls for boosting government spending on public projects to stimulate demand during a recession.
QUESTION 42 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if: (1) the price of its substitute rises; (2) the price of its complement rises; (3) it is an inferior good and consumer incomes rise; (4) its own price falls. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Demand rises when a substitute becomes pricier or the good's own price falls; a rising complement price actually reduces demand, and for an inferior good, rising income reduces rather than increases demand.
QUESTION 43 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by which of the following: actions of the US Federal Reserve; actions of the Reserve Bank of India; inflation and short-term interest rates?
Explanation: Global monetary conditions, domestic monetary policy, and inflation/short-rate dynamics all genuinely feed into determining Indian government-bond yields.
QUESTION 44 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these can be included in Foreign Direct Investment: Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds; Foreign Institutional Investment (with certain conditions); Global Depository Receipts; Non-Resident External deposits?
Explanation: FCCBs, conditionally-qualifying FII investment, and GDRs can all be structured to count as FDI under Indian policy, whereas NRE deposits are simply NRI bank deposits, not investment/equity capital.
QUESTION 45 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding currency devaluation's effects: (1) it necessarily improves the competitiveness of domestic exports abroad; (2) it increases the foreign value of the domestic currency; (3) it necessarily improves the trade balance. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: Devaluation does directly boost export competitiveness by making goods cheaper abroad, but it reduces (not increases) the domestic currency's foreign value, and an improved trade balance is not a guaranteed automatic outcome.
QUESTION 46 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which effect of black money generation in India has been the main worry for the Government of India?
Explanation: The core policy concern with black money is the substantial loss of legitimate tax revenue to the government due to concealment of income and tax evasion.
QUESTION 47 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
Explanation: Directly monetising the deficit by printing new money most directly expands money supply, making it the most inflationary financing method among these options.
QUESTION 48 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Hyderabad's 'Tree City of the World' recognition for 2020: Statement 1 says the UN Capital Development Fund and Arbor Day Foundation jointly recognised the city; Statement 2 says it was recognised for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain urban forests. Which is correct?
Explanation: The 'Tree Cities of the World' programme is actually run jointly by the FAO and the Arbor Day Foundation, not the UN Capital Development Fund, making Statement 1 as framed incorrect, while the reasoning in Statement 2 about the programme's actual criteria does hold true.
QUESTION 49 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding India's Climate-Smart Agriculture efforts: (1) the 'Climate-Smart Village' approach is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme; (2) CCAFS operates under CGIAR, headquartered in France; (3) ICRISAT in India is one of CGIAR's research centres. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: All three facts are accurate: CCAFS leads the Climate-Smart Village initiative under the CGIAR consortium headquartered in France, and ICRISAT is indeed a CGIAR research centre based in India.
QUESTION 50 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these organisms are primary producers in ocean food chains: copepods, cyanobacteria, diatoms, foraminifera?
Explanation: Cyanobacteria and diatoms are photosynthetic organisms forming the primary-producer base of marine food chains, whereas copepods and foraminifera are consumers, not producers.
QUESTION 51 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of these animals roll up to protect their vulnerable parts: hedgehog, marmot, pangolin?
Explanation: Both hedgehogs and pangolins curl into a tight ball to shield their soft undersides from predators, while marmots do not display this rolling-up defence behaviour.
QUESTION 52 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding the 'New York Declaration on Forests': (1) it was first endorsed at the 2014 UN Climate Summit; (2) it endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests; (3) it is a legally binding international declaration; (4) it is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities; (5) India was one of its founding signatories. Which is/are correct?
Explanation: The Declaration was indeed launched at the 2014 UN Climate Summit with a timeline to halt forest loss and broad multi-stakeholder endorsement, but it is a voluntary, non-binding declaration, and India was notably not among its original signatories.
QUESTION 53 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of these sources: brakes of motor vehicles, engines of motor vehicles, microwave ovens within homes, power plants, telephone lines?
Explanation: Vehicle brake wear, engine combustion, and power-plant emissions are documented sources of airborne magnetite particulates, whereas microwave ovens and telephone lines are not recognised sources of this pollutant.
QUESTION 54 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these is a filter feeder?
Explanation: Oysters filter large volumes of water to strain out plankton and organic particles for food, making them classic filter feeders.
QUESTION 55 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] In which biogeochemical cycle is the weathering of rocks the main source of nutrient release into the cycle?
Explanation: Unlike carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, which have significant atmospheric reservoirs, phosphorus lacks a gaseous phase and enters ecosystems chiefly through weathering of phosphate-bearing rocks.
QUESTION 56 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Among earthworms, jellyfish, seahorses and woodlice, which are detritivores (feeders on decaying organic matter)?
Explanation: Earthworms and woodlice both consume decomposing organic matter in soil and leaf litter, functioning as detritivores, unlike jellyfish (planktivores/carnivores) and seahorses (small-crustacean feeders).
QUESTION 57 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] The 'Common Carbon Metric,' supported by UNEP, was developed for which purpose?
Explanation: The Common Carbon Metric was specifically designed to consistently measure and report greenhouse gas emissions from building operations across different countries.
QUESTION 58 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] The 'R2 Code of Practices' is a tool that promotes the adoption of:
Explanation: The R2 (Responsible Recycling) Standard sets practices for environmentally sound and safe handling of electronic waste in the recycling industry.
QUESTION 59 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] Why are copper smelting plants a source of environmental concern: (1) they may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide; (2) copper slag can cause leaching of heavy metals into the environment; (3) they may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant?
Explanation: Copper smelting is a genuine source of heavy-metal leaching from slag and of sulphur dioxide emissions, but release of lethal carbon monoxide is not considered a primary hazard specifically associated with copper smelting.
QUESTION 60 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] What is 'blue carbon'?
Explanation: 'Blue carbon' specifically refers to carbon captured and stored by marine and coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, seagrasses and salt marshes.
QUESTION 61 OF 61
[UPSC Prelims 2021] In nature, which of these are most likely to survive on a bare surface without soil: fern, lichen, moss, mushroom?
Explanation: Lichens and mosses are pioneer organisms capable of colonising bare rock or other soil-less surfaces, unlike ferns and mushrooms, which typically need soil or organic substrates.
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