UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQ)

QUESTION 1 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of these statements is/are correct: (1) a person could become a slave as a result of a judicial punishment; (2) if a female slave bore her master a son, she became legally free; (3) a son born to a female slave, fathered by her master, was entitled to the legal status of the master's own son?

Explanation: The Arthashastra recognises judicial enslavement, freedom for a female slave who bears her master's child, and legitimate status for such a child as the master's son, so all three statements hold.

QUESTION 2 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Consider these historical-figure pairs: Aryadeva - Jain scholar; Dignaga - Buddhist scholar; Nathamuni - Vaishnava scholar. How many pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: Aryadeva was actually a Buddhist Madhyamaka philosopher (disciple of Nagarjuna), not a Jain scholar, so that pair is wrong; Dignaga (Buddhist logician) and Nathamuni (Vaishnava Alvar scholar) are correctly matched.

QUESTION 3 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which ancient town is renowned for its elaborate water-harvesting system of dams and channels feeding a series of interconnected reservoirs?

Explanation: Dholavira, a major Harappan site in Gujarat, is famous for its sophisticated reservoirs, dams and channels for water conservation.

QUESTION 4 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Between the decline of the Guptas and the rise of Harshavardhana in the early 7th century, which of these dynasties held power in northern India: Later Guptas of Magadha, Paramaras of Malwa, Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, Maukharis of Kanauj, Yadavas of Devagiri, Maitrakas of Valabhi?

Explanation: The Later Guptas, Pushyabhutis, Maukharis and Maitrakas were active in this era, while the Paramaras (9th century) and Yadavas (12th century) rose much later.

QUESTION 5 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] With reference to ancient Indian civil law codes, which is correct: under the Mitakshara system sons could claim rights to family property during the father's lifetime, whereas under the Dayabhaga system such a claim arose only after the father's death?

Explanation: This is the genuine key procedural difference between Mitakshara and Dayabhaga inheritance law; claims that the codes were caste-specific, or covered only male-held property, misrepresent the actual legal systems.

QUESTION 6 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara of ancient India were noted as:

Explanation: All three were celebrated Sanskrit dramatists of ancient/early-medieval India.

QUESTION 7 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] In sources from the post-Harsha period, what did the term 'Hundi' denote?

Explanation: Hundi functioned as an instrument for transferring money or credit across distances, much like a bill of exchange.

QUESTION 8 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] An ancient Indian ruler's inscription advises that praising one's own religious sect or criticising others out of excessive zeal actually injures one's own sect. Which ruler issued this?

Explanation: This paraphrases Ashoka's Rock Edict XII, which preaches restraint and tolerance among religious sects.

QUESTION 9 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] During the Gupta era, the towns of Ghantasala, Kaduru and Chaul were chiefly known as:

Explanation: These were coastal towns serving as ports that facilitated India's maritime trade with foreign lands during Gupta times.

QUESTION 10 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Which of these is NOT a Harappan site?

Explanation: Sohgaura, known for a copper-plate inscription, belongs to the Mauryan period, not the Indus Valley Civilisation; the other three are genuine Harappan sites.

QUESTION 11 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding forced labour (Vishti) during the Gupta period, which statement is correct?

Explanation: Vishti was essentially unpaid compulsory labour extracted from subjects, functioning as a form of taxation for the state rather than a paid or optional service.

QUESTION 12 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] In Indian tradition, who is regarded as the future Buddha yet to appear to save the world?

Explanation: Maitreya is the Bodhisattva prophesied in Buddhist tradition to appear on Earth in the future and attain full enlightenment.

QUESTION 13 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Comparing Rigvedic Aryans with the Indus Valley people: (1) Aryans used coats of mail and helmets in war, with no such IVC evidence; (2) Aryans knew gold, silver and copper while IVC people knew only copper and iron; (3) Aryans had domesticated the horse, with no evidence IVC people did. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Statement 2 is wrong because the IVC people, being pre-Iron Age, did not know iron; statements 1 and 3 correctly capture genuine cultural contrasts between the two groups.

QUESTION 14 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Which ancient Indian literary work narrates the love story of the son of the founder of the Sunga dynasty?

Explanation: Kalidasa's play Malavikagnimitra tells the romance of Agnimitra, son of Sunga dynasty founder Pushyamitra Sunga.

QUESTION 15 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Consider these terms: Eripatti - land revenue set apart for maintaining a village tank; Taniyurs - villages gifted exclusively to a single Brahmin or group of Brahmins; Ghatikas - colleges generally attached to temples. Which pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: Eripatti and Ghatikas are correctly described, but Taniyurs were actually large autonomous administrative villages, not specifically Brahmin land-grant settlements (that description fits Brahmadeya instead).

QUESTION 16 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Which kingdoms are traditionally linked with the life of Gautama Buddha, from Avanti, Gandhara, Kosala, Magadha?

Explanation: The Buddha's biography is closely tied to Kosala (region of Sravasti) and Magadha (enlightenment near Bodh Gaya, first sermon nearby); Avanti and Gandhara are not directly linked to his life story.

QUESTION 17 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these pairs are correctly matched: Burzahom - rock-cut shrines; Chandraketugarh - terracotta art; Ganeshwar - copper artefacts?

Explanation: Burzahom is a Neolithic-Megalithic site known for pit-dwellings, not rock-cut shrines; Chandraketugarh is genuinely famed for terracotta art, and Ganeshwar for Copper Hoard Culture artefacts.

QUESTION 18 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Which characteristics apply to the Indus Valley Civilisation: (1) they built grand palaces and temples; (2) they worshipped both male and female deities; (3) they used horse-drawn chariots?

Explanation: There is no archaeological evidence of grand palaces/temples or horse-drawn chariots in IVC sites, but terracotta figurines suggest worship of both male and female deities.

QUESTION 19 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] In medieval India, the term 'Fanam' referred to:

Explanation: Fanam was a small gold or copper coin used widely in medieval south India.

QUESTION 20 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Mongol incursions into India: (1) the first Mongol invasion occurred under Jalal-ud-din Khalji; (2) under Ala-ud-din Khalji a Mongol force advanced to and besieged Delhi; (3) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq briefly lost north-western territory to the Mongols. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The first Mongol invasion did happen under Jalal-ud-din Khalji, and Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq briefly lost north-western lands to the Mongols, but no Mongol army besieged Delhi itself during Ala-ud-din Khalji's reign.

QUESTION 21 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Who were historically referred to as 'Kulah-Daran' (cap-wearers)?

Explanation: 'Kulah-Daran' was a term used for the Sayyids, referring to their distinctive cap/headgear.

QUESTION 22 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Consider king-dynasty pairs: Nannuka-Chandela; Jayashakti-Paramara; Nagabhata II-Gurjara Pratihara; Bhoja-Rashtrakuta. How many pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: Nannuka founded the Chandela line and Nagabhata II belonged to the Gurjara-Pratiharas (both correct); Jayashakti actually belonged to the Chandelas, and Bhoja was a Paramara ruler, so only two pairs truly match.

QUESTION 23 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] The philosophical work 'Yogavasistha' was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during whose reign?

Explanation: This translation was part of Akbar's broader project of rendering Sanskrit texts into Persian.

QUESTION 24 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which teaching is correctly attributed to the philosopher-saint Ramanuja?

Explanation: Ramanuja, founder of Vishishtadvaita philosophy, held loving devotion (bhakti) to a personal God as the principal path to salvation.

QUESTION 25 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] According to the Portuguese chronicler Nuniz, women at the Vijayanagara court excelled in which pursuits: wrestling, astrology, accounting, soothsaying?

Explanation: Nuniz's account describes Vijayanagara women skilled across a striking range of fields, including wrestling, astrology, bookkeeping and soothsaying.

QUESTION 26 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Consider: (1) Chengiz Khan reached the Indus during Iltutmish's reign while chasing a fugitive Khwarezmian prince; (2) Timur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus during Muhammad bin Tughluq's reign; (3) Vasco da Gama reached the Kerala coast during Deva Raya II's Vijayanagara reign. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Only the first statement is chronologically accurate - Timur's invasion actually took place under Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Tughluq, and Vasco da Gama arrived in 1498, after Deva Raya II's reign had ended.

QUESTION 27 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] In Mughal administrative geography, what is the correct ascending order of units by size?

Explanation: The Mughal revenue hierarchy rose from the small Paragana, to the larger Sarkar, up to the largest unit, the Suba (province).

QUESTION 28 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding regional successor states: (1) the Nizamat of Arcot arose out of Hyderabad state; (2) the Kingdom of Mysore emerged from the Vijayanagara empire; (3) Rohilkhand was carved from territory taken by Ahmad Shah Durrani. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Nawabs of Arcot were indeed an offshoot of the Hyderabad Nizamat and Mysore emerged as a Vijayanagara successor state, but Rohilkhand was actually founded by Afghan Rohilla chiefs, unrelated to Durrani's conquests.

QUESTION 29 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Arrange chronologically from earliest: rise of the Pratiharas under Bhoja; establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman I; establishment of Chola power by Parantaka I; founding of the Pala dynasty by Gopala.

Explanation: Mahendravarman I's Pallava reign predates Gopala's founding of the Pala dynasty, which predates Bhoja's Pratihara rise, which predates Parantaka I's Chola consolidation.

QUESTION 30 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] In Indian land-revenue terminology, what do the terms 'kulyavapa' and 'dronavapa' denote?

Explanation: These were traditional units measuring land area based on the quantity of seed required to sow it.

QUESTION 31 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding Jagirdars and Zamindars under Mughal rule: (1) Jagirdars held land assignments tied to judicial/police duties while Zamindars held revenue rights without such duties; (2) Jagirs were hereditary while Zamindari revenue rights were not. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: In fact it was largely the reverse: Zamindari rights tended to be hereditary while Jagirs (assignments to nobles) were typically transferable and non-hereditary, so both given statements are incorrect.

QUESTION 32 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding Delhi Sultanate revenue administration: (1) the officer in charge of revenue collection was called 'Amil'; (2) the Iqta system was an ancient indigenous Indian institution; (3) the post of 'Mir Bakshi' originated under the Khalji Sultans. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: 'Amil' correctly denoted the revenue collector, but the Iqta system was actually imported from the wider Islamic administrative tradition (not indigenous), and 'Mir Bakshi' was a Mughal-era office, not a Khalji one.

QUESTION 33 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Consider: (1) Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar; (2) Saint Kabir was strongly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Nimbarka predated Akbar by centuries, and Kabir predated Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi as well, so neither statement is chronologically correct.

QUESTION 34 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Which Mughal emperor is credited with shifting artistic emphasis from illustrated manuscripts toward individual portraiture and albums (muraqqa)?

Explanation: Jahangir had a documented personal passion for naturalistic individual portraits and curated albums, moving the imperial atelier away from Akbar-era manuscript illustration.

QUESTION 35 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Regarding Mughal-era monuments: (1) white marble was used for the Buland Darwaza and the Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri; (2) red sandstone and marble were used for the Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Buland Darwaza and Khankah did use white marble elements, but the Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were built chiefly of brick and lime plaster in the Lakhauri style, not red sandstone and marble.

QUESTION 36 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Which port served as a very important seaport of the Kakatiya kingdom?

Explanation: Motupalli on the Andhra coast was a key Kakatiya-era trading port, noted for its trade-protection regulations recorded in an inscription of Ganapati Deva.

QUESTION 37 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] On Krishnadeva Raya's Vijayanagara taxation system: (1) land tax rates were fixed according to land quality; (2) private workshop owners paid an industry tax. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Vijayanagara records confirm both graded land taxation by soil quality and levies on privately owned manufacturing workshops.

QUESTION 38 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] In medieval India, Banjaras were generally engaged as:

Explanation: The Banjaras were itinerant traders who transported grain and goods across regions using pack-animal caravans.

QUESTION 39 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Regarding essential elements of the feudal system in Indian history: (1) a very strong central authority paired with a very weak local authority; (2) an administrative structure grounded in control/possession of land; (3) a lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Feudalism is actually marked by a weak central authority alongside strong local power (the reverse of statement 1), while land-based administration and lord-vassal ties are genuinely defining feudal features.

QUESTION 40 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Babur's arrival in India is associated with which of these developments: (1) introduction of gunpowder to the subcontinent; (2) introduction of the arch and dome into regional architecture; (3) establishment of the Timurid (Mughal) dynasty in the region?

Explanation: Babur's invasion brought gunpowder artillery to India and founded the Timurid-line Mughal dynasty, but the arch and dome had already been introduced to Indian architecture earlier, under the Delhi Sultanate.

QUESTION 41 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] What did the medieval Indian designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' refer to?

Explanation: Both terms referred to village headmen or leading local officials named in medieval land-grant inscriptions.

QUESTION 42 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] What was the 'Ibadat Khana' built by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri?

Explanation: The Ibadat Khana ('House of Worship') was where Akbar convened scholars from diverse faiths for debate, feeding into his syncretic religious philosophy.

QUESTION 43 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Under the Government of India Act 1919, provincial subjects were split into 'Reserved' and 'Transferred' categories. Which of these were treated as 'Reserved': Administration of Justice, Local Self-Government, Land Revenue, Police?

Explanation: Justice, Land Revenue and Police remained 'Reserved' subjects under the Governor's direct control, while Local Self-Government was among the 'Transferred' subjects handed to Indian ministers under dyarchy.

QUESTION 44 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Among these freedom fighters - Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, Rash Behari Bose - who was actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

Explanation: Rash Behari Bose was a key organiser linked to Ghadar Party activities, while the other two were chiefly tied to Bengal's revolutionary movement.

QUESTION 45 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Cripps Mission's 1942 proposals: (1) the proposed Constituent Assembly would include members nominated by Provincial Assemblies as well as by Princely States; (2) any province unwilling to accept the new constitution could sign a separate agreement with Britain on its future status. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Both provisions genuinely featured in the Cripps proposals, allowing princely-state representation in the Constituent Assembly and an opt-out mechanism for unwilling provinces.

QUESTION 46 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding early European trading posts in India: (1) the Dutch established factories on the east coast on land granted by Gajapati rulers; (2) Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate; (3) the English East India Company set up a factory at Madras on land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Albuquerque did seize Goa from Bijapur's sultan, and Madras (Fort St. George) was built on land leased from a local Vijayanagara-linked chieftain, but the Dutch factories on the east coast were granted by Golconda and other regional rulers, not the Gajapatis.

QUESTION 47 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] In the early 17th century, at which of these places did the English East India Company operate a factory: Broach, Chicacole, Trichinopoly?

Explanation: The Company's early factory network of that period included Broach in Gujarat; Chicacole and Trichinopoly were not yet English trading posts at that early stage.

QUESTION 48 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Madanapalle in Andhra Pradesh, which statement is correct?

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore rendered 'Jana Gana Mana' into English at the Besant Theosophical College in Madanapalle in 1919.

QUESTION 49 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding St. Francis Xavier: (1) he was among the founders of the Jesuit order; (2) he died and was later enshrined in Goa, where a church is dedicated to him; (3) his feast is celebrated annually in Goa. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: St. Francis Xavier co-founded the Society of Jesus, his remains were enshrined at Goa's Basilica of Bom Jesus, and his feast is indeed observed annually in Goa.

QUESTION 50 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding constitutional reforms affecting women: (1) the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended voting rights for all women above 21; (2) the Government of India Act, 1935 gave women reserved legislative seats. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The 1919 reforms did not grant universal women's suffrage (it remained a limited provincial option), whereas the 1935 Act did introduce reserved seats for women.

QUESTION 51 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding 8 August 1942 in Indian history, which statement is correct?

Explanation: The All India Congress Committee formally passed the Quit India Resolution on 8 August 1942 at its Bombay session.

QUESTION 52 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Who is associated with 'Songs from Prison', an English translation of ancient Indian devotional lyrics?

Explanation: Gandhi translated these devotional verses into English during his imprisonment, publishing them as 'Songs from Prison'.

QUESTION 53 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Who served as Secretary of the Hindu Female School, which was later renamed the Bethune Female School?

Explanation: Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was closely involved in running and supporting this pioneering girls' school in Calcutta.

QUESTION 54 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered in colonial Indian history as:

Explanation: These three Indian National Army officers were famously tried together at the Red Fort trials for their role under Subhas Chandra Bose.

QUESTION 55 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] The 1884 Rakhmabai case in colonial India centred on which issue(s): women's right to education, age of consent, restitution of conjugal rights?

Explanation: The Rakhmabai case revolved around a wife's refusal to join her husband, raising the issue of restitution of conjugal rights and helping spur the debate that led to the Age of Consent Act.

QUESTION 56 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Indigo cultivation in India declined by the early 20th century primarily because of:

Explanation: The invention of synthetic indigo dye in Germany made natural indigo commercially unviable in world markets, driving the crop's decline in India.

QUESTION 57 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Why did Wellesley establish Fort William College at Calcutta?

Explanation: Wellesley set up the college specifically to train young Company civil servants in Indian languages and administrative practice before they took up posts.

QUESTION 58 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] In Indian history, 'Ulgulan' or the 'Great Tumult' refers to which event?

Explanation: 'Ulgulan' is the name given to the tribal uprising led by Birsa Munda against British and landlord exploitation around the turn of the 20th century.

QUESTION 59 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Which of these best explains the Industrial Revolution's impact on India in the first half of the 19th century?

Explanation: Cheap machine-made British textiles flooding Indian markets devastated the livelihoods of traditional handicraft artisans well before railways or industrialisation reached India.

QUESTION 60 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar's nationalist Bengali book 'Desher Katha': (1) it warned against the colonial state's hypnotic hold over the mind; (2) it inspired swadeshi street plays and folk songs; (3) his use of 'desh' specifically meant the region of Bengal. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: All three descriptions accurately capture the influence and regional framing of Deuskar's Swadeshi-era nationalist text.

QUESTION 61 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] What did the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) include: (1) an invitation to Congress for the Round Table Conference; (2) withdrawal of ordinances tied to the Civil Disobedience Movement; (3) an inquiry into police excesses at Gandhi's request; (4) release of only non-violent prisoners?

Explanation: The pact provided for withdrawing repressive ordinances, an inquiry into police conduct, and release of non-violent civil-disobedience prisoners as its specific terms.

QUESTION 62 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding land reforms in independent India, which statement is correct?

Explanation: Land-ceiling legislation was generally applied on the basis of family holdings rather than individual ownership, a defining feature (and limitation) of India's land reforms.

QUESTION 63 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding the Charter Act of 1813: (1) it ended the Company's trade monopoly in India except in tea and China trade; (2) it asserted Crown sovereignty over Company-held Indian territories; (3) Indian revenues thereafter came under British Parliament's control. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The 1813 Charter Act ended the Company's general trade monopoly (retaining only tea/China trade), asserted Crown sovereignty, and placed Indian revenues under greater parliamentary oversight - all three points hold.

QUESTION 64 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding the Swadeshi Movement: (1) it helped revive indigenous artisan crafts and industries; (2) the National Council of Education was founded as part of the movement. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The movement genuinely spurred indigenous industry/crafts, and the National Council of Education (1906) was established as its educational wing.

QUESTION 65 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Match movement/organisation to leader: All India Anti-Untouchability League - Mahatma Gandhi; All India Kisan Sabha - Swami Sahajanand Saraswati; Self-Respect Movement - E.V. Ramaswami Naicker. Which pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: All three pairings are historically accurate: Gandhi founded the Anti-Untouchability League, Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the Kisan Sabha, and Periyar led the Self-Respect Movement.

QUESTION 66 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding British colonial rule: (1) Gandhi played a role in ending indentured labour emigration; (2) at Chelmsford's 1918 War Conference, Gandhi opposed recruiting Indians for World War I; (3) after the Salt Law was broken, the Congress was declared illegal. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Gandhi did help end indentured emigration and Congress was banned after the Salt Satyagraha's civil disobedience, but at the War Conference Gandhi actually supported recruiting Indians for the war effort rather than opposing it.

QUESTION 67 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Match person to position: Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru - President, All India Liberal Federation; K.C. Neogy - member of the Constituent Assembly; P.C. Joshi - General Secretary, Communist Party of India. How many pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: All three attributions are historically accurate for these national-movement-era figures.

QUESTION 68 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Regarding Wood's Despatch (1854): (1) it introduced the grants-in-aid system; (2) it recommended establishing universities; (3) it recommended English as the medium of instruction at all levels of education. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Wood's Despatch did introduce grants-in-aid and recommend establishing universities, but it actually favoured vernacular languages for lower levels of education, reserving English mainly for higher education.

QUESTION 69 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Match colonial-era institution to founder: Sanskrit College at Benares - William Jones; Calcutta Madrasa - Warren Hastings; Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley. Which pairs are correct?

Explanation: Only the Calcutta Madrasa-Warren Hastings pairing is correct; the Sanskrit College at Benares was founded by Jonathan Duncan (not William Jones), and Fort William College was established by Governor-General Richard Wellesley, not Arthur Wellesley.

QUESTION 70 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Which of these events happened earliest: Swami Dayanand founding the Arya Samaj; Dinabandhu Mitra writing Neeldarpan; Bankim Chandra writing Anandmath; Satyendranath Tagore becoming the first Indian to clear the Indian Civil Service exam?

Explanation: Neeldarpan was published in 1860, preceding Tagore's 1863 ICS success, the founding of Arya Samaj (1875), and the writing of Anandmath (1882).

QUESTION 71 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] In 1920, which organisation changed its name to the 'Swarajya Sabha'?

Explanation: The All India Home Rule League was renamed the Swarajya Sabha in 1920 as the movement's focus shifted.

QUESTION 72 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Which factors led to the introduction of English education in India: Charter Act of 1813; General Committee of Public Instruction (1823); the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy?

Explanation: The 1813 Charter Act's education clause, debate within the Committee of Public Instruction, and the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy's resolution (via Macaulay's Minute) all contributed to introducing English education.

QUESTION 73 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] What was a key economic consequence of British rule in 19th-century India?

Explanation: British policy pushed Indian agriculture toward cash-crop production for export markets, a hallmark shift known as commercialisation of agriculture.

QUESTION 74 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] After the Santhal uprising subsided, what measures did the colonial government take: (1) creation of the 'Santhal Parganas' territory; (2) making it illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal?

Explanation: The administration both carved out the separate Santhal Parganas district and restricted land transfers from Santhals to outsiders, to address grievances behind the revolt.

QUESTION 75 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] This nationalist wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna, lived in America for a time, and was elected to the Central Assembly. Who was he?

Explanation: Lala Lajpat Rai authored these biographical works, spent time in the United States, and later served in the Central Legislative Assembly.

QUESTION 76 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Who is/are associated with introducing the Ryotwari Settlement in British India: Lord Cornwallis, Alexander Read, Thomas Munro?

Explanation: Alexander Read and Thomas Munro pioneered and implemented the Ryotwari system in the Madras Presidency; Cornwallis is instead associated with the Permanent (Zamindari) Settlement in Bengal.

QUESTION 77 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Match pairs: Radhakanta Deb - first President of the British Indian Association; Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty - founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha; Surendranath Banerjee - founder of the Indian Association. Which are correctly matched?

Explanation: Radhakanta Deb's and Surendranath Banerjee's associations are correct, but Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty actually founded the Madras Native Association, not the Madras Mahajana Sabha.

QUESTION 78 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] What was the object of the 1927 Butler Committee?

Explanation: The Butler Committee (Indian States Committee) examined and sought to improve relations between British India's government and the princely states.

QUESTION 79 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Arrange chronologically: mutiny in the Royal Indian Navy; launch of the Quit India Movement; the Second Round Table Conference.

Explanation: The Second Round Table Conference (1931) came first, followed by the Quit India Movement (1942), and finally the Royal Indian Navy Mutiny (1946).

QUESTION 80 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Sir Stafford Cripps' 1942 plan proposed that, after World War II:

Explanation: The Cripps proposals offered India Dominion status with a right to secede from the Commonwealth after the war, rather than immediate full independence.

QUESTION 81 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] What mainly caused the 1907 Surat split in the Indian National Congress?

Explanation: The Surat split stemmed chiefly from the Extremists' loss of faith in the Moderates' strategy of petitioning rather than direct confrontation.

QUESTION 82 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Keshab Chandra Sen helped establish which of these: Calcutta Unitarian Committee, Tabernacle of New Dispensation, Indian Reform Association?

Explanation: Keshab Chandra Sen was involved in founding all three organisations across different phases of his reformist career.

QUESTION 83 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] The Montagu-Chelmsford Proposals (1918) primarily concerned:

Explanation: These proposals laid the groundwork for the Government of India Act 1919, expanding constitutional self-government through dyarchy.

QUESTION 84 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] What did the Satya Shodhak Samaj organise?

Explanation: Founded by Jyotirao Phule, the Satya Shodhak Samaj led an anti-caste, anti-Brahminical social reform movement centred in Maharashtra.

QUESTION 85 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' were first adopted as methods of struggle during which movement?

Explanation: These tactics were first deployed on a mass scale during the anti-Partition-of-Bengal agitation of 1905.

QUESTION 86 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Consider: (1) the first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu; (2) the first Muslim President of Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu (1925) and Badruddin Tyabji (1887) hold these respective distinctions among Congress presidents.

QUESTION 87 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Who led a march to the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

Explanation: C. Rajagopalachari led the salt march to Vedaranyam on the Tanjore coast, a key southern parallel to Gandhi's Dandi March.

QUESTION 88 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] What did the Government of India Act 1919 clearly define?

Explanation: The 1919 Act's central constitutional contribution was clearly demarcating subjects and jurisdiction between the central and provincial governments through dyarchy.

QUESTION 89 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Who were economic critics of British colonialism in India, among Dadabhai Naoroji, G. Subramania Iyer, and R.C. Dutt?

Explanation: All three figures authored influential economic critiques of British colonial policy, contributing to the 'drain of wealth' theory.

QUESTION 90 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] The Partition of Bengal (1905), enacted by Curzon, lasted until when?

Explanation: The controversial partition was formally annulled by King George V at the 1911 Delhi Durbar, reuniting Bengal.

QUESTION 91 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] Why is the 1929 Congress session historically significant?

Explanation: At the 1929 Lahore session, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, Congress formally adopted 'Poorna Swaraj' as its objective.

QUESTION 92 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] The Ghadr (Ghadar) movement was:

Explanation: The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 among Indian immigrants on the US West Coast, headquartered in San Francisco.

QUESTION 93 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] What was/were the object(s) of Queen Victoria's 1858 Proclamation: (1) disclaiming any intent to further annex Indian states; (2) placing Indian administration under the British Crown; (3) regulating the East India Company's trade with India?

Explanation: The Proclamation renounced further territorial annexation and transferred governance from the Company to the Crown, but did not deal with regulating Company trade, which had already ended by then.

QUESTION 94 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Members of the Constituent Assembly representing the Provinces were:

Explanation: Provincial members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen indirectly, elected by members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

QUESTION 95 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] What was demanded in the Tebhaga peasant movement in Bengal?

Explanation: 'Tebhaga' (two-thirds) demanded sharecroppers retain two-thirds of the crop, cutting the landlord's share to one-third.

QUESTION 96 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Why did Indians agitate against the Simon Commission's arrival?

Explanation: The all-white composition of the Simon Commission, with no Indian representative, sparked nationwide 'Simon Go Back' protests.

QUESTION 97 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] The Quit India Movement (1942) was launched in response to the breakdown of talks over:

Explanation: The failure of negotiations over the Cripps Mission's 1942 proposals directly triggered Congress's decision to launch the Quit India Movement.

QUESTION 98 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Regarding Annie Besant: (1) she helped start the Home Rule Movement; (2) she founded the Theosophical Society; (3) she once served as Congress President. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Besant co-founded the Home Rule League and served as Congress President (1917), but the Theosophical Society was actually founded earlier by Helena Blavatsky and Henry Olcott, whom she later joined.

QUESTION 99 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] The Ilbert Bill controversy (1883) was related to:

Explanation: The Ilbert Bill sought to allow Indian judges and magistrates to try European British subjects, provoking fierce opposition from the European community in India.

QUESTION 100 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding contempt of court in India: (1) the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 followed the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee; (2) the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to punish contempt of themselves; (3) the Constitution itself defines Civil and Criminal Contempt; (4) Parliament has the power to legislate on contempt of court. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The 1971 Act followed the Sanyal Committee's report, the Constitution empowers courts to punish contempt of themselves, and Parliament can legislate on the subject - but it is the 1971 Act, not the Constitution, that defines civil and criminal contempt.

QUESTION 101 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding legal practice in India: (1) government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, while corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded; (2) Bar Councils can frame rules on legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Bar Councils do regulate legal education standards and recognise law colleges, but statement 1 misdescribes the actual rules on advocate recognition.

QUESTION 102 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding constitutional amendment bills: (1) a bill amending the Constitution requires prior Presidential recommendation; (2) the President must give assent to any Constitution Amendment Bill presented; (3) such a bill must be passed by both Houses by special majority, with no joint-sitting provision. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Unlike ordinary bills, a Constitution Amendment Bill needs no prior Presidential recommendation before introduction, and there is indeed no joint-sitting mechanism for it - both true; assent, once passed, is not a discretionary matter as statement 2 implies.

QUESTION 103 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Union Council of Ministers: (1) the Constitution itself classifies ministers into Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister ranks; (2) total ministers including the PM cannot exceed 15% of the Lok Sabha's total membership. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The 15% cap on Council of Ministers size (91st Amendment) is a genuine constitutional provision, but the four-tier ministerial classification is a matter of convention/practice, not something the Constitution's text lays out.

QUESTION 104 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha: ratifying an Emergency declaration; passing a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers; impeaching the President of India?

Explanation: Only the Lok Sabha can move and pass a no-confidence motion against the government; ratifying an Emergency and impeaching the President require action by both Houses of Parliament.

QUESTION 105 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding India's anti-defection law: (1) it bars a nominated legislator from joining a political party within six months of appointment; (2) it sets no timeframe within which the presiding officer must decide a defection case. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe any timeframe for the Speaker/Chairman to decide defection petitions, a much-criticised gap, but does not impose the six-month bar described in statement 1 as stated.

QUESTION 106 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Attorney General of India: (1) the AG and Solicitor General are the only government officers permitted to participate in Parliament's proceedings; (2) the AG automatically resigns when the government that appointed them resigns. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Neither statement is correct - other officers can participate in Parliament in specific limited ways, and while the AG conventionally offers to resign upon a change of government, there is no strict automatic constitutional requirement to do so.

QUESTION 107 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding writs in India: (1) mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty; (2) mandamus will not lie against a company even if it is a government company; (3) any public-spirited person can petition for a writ of quo warranto. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Mandamus can lie against a private body discharging a public duty, and any interested member of the public can seek quo warranto - but mandamus can in fact lie against a government company performing public functions, making statement 2 incorrect.

QUESTION 108 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha: (1) the Rules of Procedure let the Speaker fix the date of the Deputy Speaker's election; (2) there is a mandatory rule that the Deputy Speaker come from either the principal opposition or the ruling party; (3) the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers as the Speaker while presiding, with no appeal against rulings; (4) established practice is for the Speaker to move the election motion, seconded by the Prime Minister. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Speaker does fix the election date, and the Deputy Speaker's presiding powers and the finality of rulings mirror the Speaker's, but there is no mandatory party-linked rule for the post, nor is the motion conventionally moved by the Speaker and seconded by the PM.

QUESTION 109 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, what is the main consequence?

Explanation: Fifth Schedule areas receive special protections, chiefly restricting the transfer/alienation of tribal land to non-tribal people, to safeguard tribal interests.

QUESTION 110 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth is seen to violate:

Explanation: Article 39(c), a Directive Principle, specifically directs the State to prevent the concentration of wealth to the common detriment.

QUESTION 111 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] What is the current legal status of the Right to Property in India?

Explanation: Since the 44th Amendment moved it out of Part III, the Right to Property under Article 300A is a legal right available to any person, not restricted to citizens.

QUESTION 112 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] What was India's exact constitutional status on 26 January 1950?

Explanation: The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble only later, by the 42nd Amendment (1976); in 1950 India was simply a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

QUESTION 113 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] What does 'constitutional government' essentially mean?

Explanation: A constitutional government is fundamentally one whose powers and actions are bound and limited by a written or unwritten constitution.

QUESTION 114 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards, which statement(s) are NOT correct: they are 'titles' under Article 18(1); Padma Awards (instituted 1954) were suspended only once; Bharat Ratna is capped at five awards per year?

Explanation: Courts have held these awards are not 'titles' under Article 18(1); the Padma Awards were actually suspended more than once in their history; and there is no fixed numerical cap on Bharat Ratna awards each year, only an informal convention of restraint.

QUESTION 115 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding judicial custody: (1) it means the accused is held under the magistrate's authority but lodged in a police station, not jail; (2) during judicial custody, the investigating officer cannot interrogate the suspect without court approval. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: In judicial custody the accused is actually lodged in jail (police-station lodging defines police custody instead), while questioning genuinely does require court permission.

QUESTION 116 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding parole in India: (1) if a prisoner makes a sufficiently strong case, parole cannot be denied since it becomes a matter of right; (2) State Governments have their own Prisoners' Release on Parole Rules. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Parole remains a discretionary privilege even in a strong case, not an absolute right, but states genuinely do frame their own parole release rules.

QUESTION 117 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which ministry is the nodal agency ensuring effective implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006?

Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is designated as the nodal ministry overseeing implementation of the Forest Rights Act.

QUESTION 118 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] A law that confers unguided, uncontrolled discretionary power on an executive authority violates which constitutional article?

Explanation: Such arbitrary, unguided discretion is held by courts to breach Article 14's guarantee of equality before law, which bars arbitrary state action.

QUESTION 119 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which feature best signifies the federal character of Indian polity?

Explanation: An independent judiciary capable of adjudicating Centre-State disputes and upholding the constitutional division of powers is a hallmark of a genuinely federal system.

QUESTION 120 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which definition best captures the political-theory term 'State'?

Explanation: This definition captures the classical elements of statehood: territory, population, government, and sovereignty/independence from external control.

QUESTION 121 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Indian judiciary: (1) a retired Supreme Court judge can be recalled to sit by the Chief Justice with the President's prior permission; (2) a High Court can review its own judgment just as the Supreme Court can. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Article 128 allows recalling retired Supreme Court judges with Presidential consent, and High Courts, like the Supreme Court, possess the power to review their own judgments.

QUESTION 122 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding citizenship in India: (1) there is only one citizenship and one domicile; (2) only a citizen by birth can become Head of State; (3) a naturalised citizen can never be deprived of citizenship under any circumstance. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: India has single, uniform citizenship with no separate state domicile - but a naturalised citizen can indeed become President (there is no birth requirement), and citizenship can be revoked under specified legal grounds.

QUESTION 123 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which factor best safeguards liberty in a liberal democracy?

Explanation: Distributing power among distinct branches of government (separation of powers) is considered the strongest institutional safeguard against tyranny and for individual liberty.

QUESTION 124 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] How does India's parliamentary model differ from the British model: (1) unlike Britain's sovereign Parliament, India's Parliament has limited law-making power; (2) constitutionality of an Act's amendment is often referred to a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Unlike the UK doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty, India's Parliament operates under a written Constitution subject to judicial review, with amendment validity often examined by Constitution Benches.

QUESTION 125 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding administrative reform in the Union Government: (1) a specific committee suggested designating a minister and secretary solely for administrative reform; (2) in 1970, the Department of Personnel was set up following the first Administrative Reforms Commission's recommendation, placed under the Prime Minister. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Department of Personnel's 1970 creation, placed under the Prime Minister, did follow the first Administrative Reforms Commission's recommendation, though the specific committee credited in statement 1 is misattributed.

QUESTION 126 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Under which Article is the 'Right to Privacy' protected in India?

Explanation: The Supreme Court's Puttaswamy judgment (2017) recognised privacy as intrinsic to the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.

QUESTION 127 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding contesting multiple Lok Sabha seats: (1) Indian law places no restriction on a candidate contesting from three constituencies at once; (2) in the 1991 elections, Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies; (3) if such a candidate wins all the seats, their party must bear the bye-election costs for the vacated seats. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The law actually caps contesting to a maximum of two constituencies, and it is the candidate/state (not the party) that bears bye-election costs, so only the historical fact about Devi Lal holds.

QUESTION 128 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] In which matter does the Rajya Sabha have equal power with the Lok Sabha?

Explanation: Constitutional amendments require passage by both Houses with special majority; a no-confidence motion is a Lok Sabha-only device, cut motions belong only to the Lok Sabha's budgetary process, and Rajya Sabha has no special power over new All India Services.

QUESTION 129 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding MPLADS funds: (1) they must create durable assets like health/education infrastructure; (2) a specified share must benefit SC/ST populations; (3) funds are sanctioned yearly and cannot be carried forward; (4) district authorities must inspect at least 10% of works yearly. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: MPLADS mandates durable-asset creation, SC/ST fund earmarking, and minimum inspection quotas - but unused funds can actually be carried forward to subsequent years, unlike statement 3 claims.

QUESTION 130 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Which Fundamental Right category specifically addresses discrimination through untouchability?

Explanation: Article 17, which abolishes untouchability, falls under the Right to Equality category of Fundamental Rights.

QUESTION 131 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Separation of the judiciary from the executive in India is enjoined by:

Explanation: Article 50, a Directive Principle, specifically directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services.

QUESTION 132 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] The 'Macro Economic Framework Statement' accompanying the Union Budget is mandated by:

Explanation: This statement is specifically required under the FRBM Act rather than being a direct constitutional mandate.

QUESTION 133 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] By definition, a constitutional government is a:

Explanation: The defining feature of constitutionalism is that governmental power is limited and bound by the constitution's terms.

QUESTION 134 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Beyond Fundamental Rights, which parts of India's Constitution reflect the principles of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights: Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties?

Explanation: The Preamble's ideals and the socio-economic goals of the Directive Principles closely echo the UDHR, whereas the Fundamental Duties (added in 1976) are not primarily UDHR-derived in the same direct sense.

QUESTION 135 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding India's Legal Services Authorities, which category(ies) of citizens are entitled to free legal aid: a person with annual income under Rs 1,00,000; a transgender person with annual income under Rs 2,00,000; an OBC member with annual income under Rs 3,00,000; all senior citizens automatically?

Explanation: Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, transgender persons and members of backward classes meeting specified income ceilings are indeed entitled to free legal aid, unlike the specific income figures and blanket senior-citizen entitlement framed in the other statements.

QUESTION 136 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Which best defines a Parliamentary System of Government?

Explanation: The hallmark of a parliamentary system is the executive's collective responsibility to, and removability by, the legislature.

QUESTION 137 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?

Explanation: The Directive Principles (Part IV) articulate the socio-economic goals that define India's commitment to being a welfare state.

QUESTION 138 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding the Constitution's 'basic structure': (1) the Constitution itself defines 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy; (2) the Constitution provides for judicial review to safeguard citizens' liberties and preserve constitutional ideals. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The 'basic structure' doctrine is a judicial innovation from the Kesavananda Bharati case - the constitutional text does not itself define or list a 'basic structure' - while judicial review is indeed constitutionally embedded.

QUESTION 139 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Which characteristic best fits the role of bureaucracy in the Indian context?

Explanation: The bureaucracy's core defining role is to execute and implement the policies decided by the elected political executive.

QUESTION 140 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] What is the legal status of the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Explanation: The Supreme Court, in the Kesavananda Bharati case, held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution, though it is not directly enforceable independently of the substantive provisions.

QUESTION 141 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding provisions contained in Part IV (DPSP) of the Constitution: (1) they are enforceable by courts; (2) they are not enforceable by any court; (3) they are meant to guide law-making by the State. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Directive Principles are explicitly non-justiciable under Article 37, yet they are meant to guide the State's legislative and policy priorities.

QUESTION 142 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding ministers and disqualification: (1) a voter who is not a member of the state legislature can be made a state minister for up to six months; (2) under the Representation of the People Act, a person convicted and sentenced to five years' imprisonment is permanently disqualified from contesting even after release. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The six-month non-member ministerial window is a genuine constitutional provision, but disqualification under the RP Act lasts only a specified period after release, not permanently.

QUESTION 143 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Regarding Parliament's sessions: (1) the President can summon Parliament to meet at a place of his/her choosing; (2) the Constitution mandates exactly three sessions of Parliament every year, though it need not be compulsory to hold all three; (3) there is no prescribed minimum number of sitting days each year. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The President can indeed summon Parliament at any chosen venue and there is no minimum-days rule, but the Constitution does not itself mandate exactly three annual sessions - it only requires that the gap between sessions not exceed six months.

QUESTION 144 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2020] Which grouping consists entirely of G20 member countries?

Explanation: Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey are all G20 members, unlike the other lists, each of which includes at least one non-member country.

QUESTION 145 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding the Office of Profit exemption: (1) the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on Office-of-Profit grounds; (2) this Act has been amended five times; (3) the term 'Office of Profit' is precisely defined in the Constitution. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The 1959 Act genuinely provides exemptions and has been amended multiple times, but 'Office of Profit' is nowhere precisely defined in the Constitution, leaving it to judicial interpretation case by case.

QUESTION 146 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] During whose prime ministership was the Ninth Schedule introduced into the Constitution?

Explanation: The Ninth Schedule was created by the First Amendment Act of 1951, during Jawaharlal Nehru's tenure, to shield land-reform laws from judicial challenge.

QUESTION 147 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding constitutional amendments and judicial review: (1) an amendment placed the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review; (2) the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment as violating the independence of the judiciary. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Supreme Court did strike down the 99th Amendment (the NJAC) for threatening judicial independence, but it was actually the 39th Amendment (in 1975), not any 44th Amendment provision, that had earlier tried to place the PM's election beyond judicial review.

QUESTION 148 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding impeachment of Supreme Court judges: (1) a motion to impeach a judge cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968; (2) the Constitution defines in detail what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour'; (3) the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 details the impeachment process; (4) a successful impeachment motion needs backing of a majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting in each House. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Judges (Inquiry) Act does lay out the detailed process and the special-majority requirement is accurate, but the Speaker/Chairman can in fact decline to admit a motion if unsatisfied with its grounds, and the Constitution does not itself define 'misbehaviour' in detail.

QUESTION 149 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Which Article safeguards an individual's right to marry a person of their own choice?

Explanation: The Supreme Court has held that the right to choose one's life partner is intrinsic to the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.

QUESTION 150 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding Article 142 (the Supreme Court's power to do 'complete justice'), what does it mean to say that ordinary-law limitations cannot restrict this constitutional power?

Explanation: Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders necessary for 'complete justice' that are not fettered by limitations found in ordinary statutes made by Parliament.

QUESTION 151 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding a State's Legislative Assembly: (1) the Governor customarily addresses members at the commencement of the first session each year; (2) when a State Legislature lacks a rule on a matter, it follows the corresponding Lok Sabha rule. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Both practices are accurate - the Governor addresses members at each year's first session, and in the absence of a specific state rule, Lok Sabha's procedural rule is followed by convention.

QUESTION 152 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (1) they reside across 18 states and one Union Territory; (2) a stagnant or declining population is one criterion for PVTG status; (3) 95 PVTGs are officially notified so far; (4) the Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the PVTG list. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: PVTGs span 18 states and one Union Territory, are partly identified by a stagnant/declining population, and the Irular and Konda Reddi are indeed listed PVTGs - but the officially notified number is 75, not 95.

QUESTION 153 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Regarding constitutional courts: (1) no High Court has jurisdiction to declare a central law constitutionally invalid; (2) an amendment to the Constitution can never be called into question by the Supreme Court. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: High Courts can and do strike down central laws as unconstitutional within their jurisdiction, and constitutional amendments are themselves subject to judicial review under the basic structure doctrine.

QUESTION 154 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] In political theory, which is the most appropriate definition of liberty?

Explanation: Modern political theory generally frames liberty positively, as the opportunity for full self-development, rather than as mere absence of restraint.

QUESTION 155 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2019] Which body recommended that the Governor be an eminent person from outside the state, detached from recent active politics?

Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission specifically recommended that Governors be eminent, politically detached persons from outside the state.

QUESTION 156 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Regarding the Governor of a State: (1) no criminal proceedings can be instituted against a sitting Governor in any court; (2) a Governor's emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during the term of office. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Article 361 grants the Governor immunity from criminal proceedings during their tenure, and their salary/allowances are constitutionally protected from reduction during the term.

QUESTION 157 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Which are regarded as main features of the 'Rule of Law': limitation of powers, equality before law, people's responsibility to government, liberty and civil rights?

Explanation: Limitation of governmental power, equality before law, and protection of liberty/civil rights are core Rule of Law tenets; a government's responsibility to the people (not the reverse) is the correct framing, not one recognised as a distinct Rule of Law feature here.

QUESTION 158 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Regarding a Legislative Assembly Speaker: (1) the Speaker vacates office upon ceasing to be a member of the Assembly; (2) the Speaker must vacate office immediately whenever the Assembly is dissolved. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Speaker does vacate office on losing Assembly membership, but continues in office even after dissolution until the newly elected Assembly's first meeting, so statement 2 is incorrect.

QUESTION 159 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Which best captures the relationship between law and liberty?

Explanation: Without any legal framework at all, there is no ordered liberty - properly framed laws are what make genuine liberty possible in society.

QUESTION 160 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Under the federal scheme of the Government of India Act 1935, residuary power was given to the:

Explanation: Unlike India's post-1950 Constitution (where residuary power lies with Parliament), the 1935 Act vested undefined residuary powers in the Governor-General's discretion.

QUESTION 161 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Regarding the election of the President of India: (1) the value of each MLA's vote varies from state to state; (2) the value of a Lok Sabha MP's vote is more than that of a Rajya Sabha MP's vote. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: MLA vote values do vary by state population, but all MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha alike) carry an identical vote value in Presidential elections.

QUESTION 162 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Which provisions best embody the Right to Privacy as part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty?

Explanation: The Supreme Court located the fundamental Right to Privacy within Article 21's guarantee of life and personal liberty, read together with other Part III freedoms.

QUESTION 163 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Which Parliamentary Committee scrutinises whether delegated rule-making powers are properly exercised, within scope, by the Executive?

Explanation: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation specifically examines rules, regulations and bye-laws framed under delegated legislative authority.

QUESTION 164 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] Regarding the first Lok Sabha and the Leader of the Opposition: (1) the single largest opposition party in the first Lok Sabha was the Swatantra Party; (2) a formally recognised 'Leader of the Opposition' first appeared in 1969; (3) a party needs a minimum of 75 members for its leader to be recognised as Leader of the Opposition. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Only statement 2 is accurate - the Swatantra Party did not even exist during the first Lok Sabha (whose largest opposition group was the CPI), and the actual threshold for recognition is 10% of the House's strength (55 members), not 75.

QUESTION 165 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2018] If the President invokes Article 356 (President's Rule) for a state, what follows?

Explanation: Under President's Rule, the state legislature's law-making powers pass to, or come under, Parliament's authority - the Assembly is not automatically dissolved; it may simply be kept in suspended animation.

QUESTION 166 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] One implication of equality in society is the absence of:

Explanation: True social equality implies the absence of special privileges accorded to particular groups or individuals over others.

QUESTION 167 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Do the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations on legislative function, executive function, or both?

Explanation: DPSPs are non-justiciable guiding principles meant to inform policy-making, not binding legal limitations restricting legislative or executive action.

QUESTION 168 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Regarding private members' bills: (1) such a bill is one presented by an MP who is nominated rather than elected; (2) a private member's bill has, for the first time in Parliament's history, recently been passed. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: A private member's bill is simply one introduced by any MP who is not a minister, regardless of whether elected or nominated, and such bills have been passed on rare occasions before, not for the first time recently.

QUESTION 169 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Through which of these does Parliament exercise control over the functions of the Council of Ministers: adjournment motion, question hour, supplementary questions?

Explanation: Adjournment motions, question hour, and supplementary questions are all genuine parliamentary devices for holding ministers accountable.

QUESTION 170 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Where is the 'mind of the makers' of the Indian Constitution best reflected?

Explanation: The Preamble is widely regarded as encapsulating the founding vision and core values the Constitution's framers intended to embody.

QUESTION 171 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] What is the chief advantage of a parliamentary system of government?

Explanation: The parliamentary system's core strength lies in continuous executive accountability to the elected legislature.

QUESTION 172 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] In the Indian context, which is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

Explanation: Rights and Duties are understood as correlative - enjoying a right typically corresponds with certain duties toward others and society.

QUESTION 173 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity:

Explanation: Democracy's core strength lies in drawing on the collective judgment and participation of ordinary citizens rather than relying on a single leader or elite group.

QUESTION 174 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Which of these is NOT a feature of Indian federalism?

Explanation: Unlike classic federations formed by voluntary agreement among pre-existing sovereign units, the Indian Union was created through a constitution-making process, not a federating agreement.

QUESTION 175 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Which statement best captures the underlying principle of Cabinet government?

Explanation: The Cabinet system exists fundamentally to ensure that the executive functions with collective responsibility to the legislature and, through it, the people.

QUESTION 176 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] Regarding Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen: (1) a legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties; (2) they are correlative to legal duties. Which is/are true?

Explanation: Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) are non-justiciable moral obligations with no direct legislative enforcement mechanism, and are not framed as strict legal duties correlative to enforceable rights.

QUESTION 177 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2017] What is envisaged under the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution: prohibition of human trafficking/forced labour; abolition of untouchability; protection of minority interests; prohibition of employing children in factories/mines?

Explanation: Prohibition of trafficking/forced labour and child labour fall under the Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24); abolition of untouchability is part of the Right to Equality, and minority protection is a separate Cultural/Educational Right, not part of this particular right.

QUESTION 178 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Regarding Panchayats: (1) the minimum age prescribed for any person to be a Panchayat member is 25 years; (2) a Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder of its original term. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The minimum age to contest Panchayat elections is actually 21 years, not 25, but a reconstituted Panchayat does serve only the remainder of the original five-year term.

QUESTION 179 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Regarding bills in Parliament: (1) a bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on the House's prorogation; (2) a bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, not yet passed by the Lok Sabha, does not lapse upon the Lok Sabha's dissolution. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Prorogation of the House does not by itself cause pending bills to lapse, but a bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not yet been passed by the Lok Sabha does indeed survive the Lok Sabha's dissolution.

QUESTION 180 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Parliament acquires power to legislate on a State List item in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by:

Explanation: Article 249 requires the Rajya Sabha to pass such a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, empowering Parliament to legislate on a State subject.

QUESTION 181 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Regarding Gram Nyayalayas: (1) they can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases; (2) the Act allows local social activists to serve as mediators/reconciliators. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Gram Nyayalayas are actually empowered to try both petty criminal and civil cases (not civil cases alone), while the law does provide for local conciliators to assist in resolving disputes.

QUESTION 182 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] Which indicators does IFPRI use to compute the Global Hunger Index report: undernourishment, child stunting, child mortality?

Explanation: The Global Hunger Index combines undernourishment, child stunting, child wasting, and child mortality among its component indicators.

QUESTION 183 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2016] What is the Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan national campaign about?

Explanation: Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan specifically targets the elimination of manual scavenging and the rehabilitation of manual scavengers.

QUESTION 184 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Why does India have a Parliamentary System of Government?

Explanation: The defining hallmark of the parliamentary system is the executive's (Council of Ministers') collective responsibility and accountability to the directly elected Lok Sabha.

QUESTION 185 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: (1) they spell out socio-economic democracy in the country; (2) their provisions are not enforceable by any court. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Both are accurate - the Directive Principles articulate goals of socio-economic democracy but remain explicitly non-justiciable under Article 37.

QUESTION 186 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Where is the 'Welfare State' ideal enshrined in the Indian Constitution?

Explanation: Part IV's Directive Principles articulate the vision and goals of a welfare state that the government should strive toward.

QUESTION 187 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] Regarding the Rajya Sabha and money matters: (1) it has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill; (2) it cannot vote on Demands for Grants; (3) it cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Rajya Sabha indeed cannot amend/reject Money Bills or vote on Demands for Grants, but it can and does discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) as part of the general budget discussion.

QUESTION 188 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] What is the fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system, among: people's participation in development, political accountability, democratic decentralisation, financial mobilisation?

Explanation: Panchayati Raj primarily aims at grassroots participation, political accountability, and democratic decentralisation; financial mobilisation is not counted among its foundational objectives in this framing.

QUESTION 189 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, what majority is needed to pass it?

Explanation: A joint sitting resolves a legislative deadlock through passage by a simple majority of members present and voting from both Houses combined.

QUESTION 190 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2015] 'To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India' is a provision found in:

Explanation: This specific obligation is listed among the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A(c).

QUESTION 191 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'Rapid Financing Instrument' and 'Rapid Credit Facility' are related to lending provisions of which institution: Asian Development Bank, International Monetary Fund, UNEP Finance Initiative, World Bank?

Explanation: Both are emergency lending facilities offered by the International Monetary Fund to member countries facing urgent balance-of-payments needs.

QUESTION 192 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding exchange rates: (1) a rise in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates rupee appreciation; (2) a rise in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates improved trade competitiveness; (3) rising domestic inflation relative to other countries tends to widen the divergence between NEER and REER. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: A rising REER actually signals declining, not improving, trade competitiveness because it reflects inflation-adjusted currency appreciation, whereas statements 1 and 3 are accurate.

QUESTION 193 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the RBI's inflation and currency management: (1) if inflation is too high, RBI is likely to buy government securities; (2) if the rupee is depreciating rapidly, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market; (3) if interest rates in the US/EU were to fall, that would likely induce RBI to buy dollars. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: To fight high inflation RBI would actually sell (not buy) government securities to absorb liquidity, while selling dollars to defend the rupee and buying dollars when foreign rates fall (to curb excess appreciation) are accurate steps.

QUESTION 194 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the 'G20 Common Framework': (1) it is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club; (2) it is meant to support Low Income Countries facing unsustainable debt. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatment was launched jointly with Paris Club creditors specifically to help low-income countries manage unsustainable debt.

QUESTION 195 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] What are the advantages of Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs): (1) the government can lower coupon rates on borrowing via IIBs; (2) they protect investors against inflation uncertainty; (3) interest and capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: IIBs do let the government offer lower coupons while protecting investors from inflation risk, but interest and capital gains from IIBs are actually taxable in India, not exempt.

QUESTION 196 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India: (1) they can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces; (2) the degree to which they can own major sellers on their platforms is limited. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Under India's FDI policy for e-commerce, foreign-owned marketplace entities are actually barred from selling their own inventory directly, but their ownership stake in major platform sellers is indeed restricted.

QUESTION 197 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which activities constitute the 'real sector' of the economy: farmers harvesting crops; textile mills converting raw cotton into fabric; a commercial bank lending to a trading company; a corporate body issuing rupee-denominated bonds overseas?

Explanation: The real sector covers actual production of goods and services such as farming and manufacturing, while bank lending and overseas bond issuance are financial-sector activities.

QUESTION 198 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which situation best reflects 'Indirect Transfers' as discussed in Indian tax policy?

Explanation: 'Indirect transfer' taxation targets exactly this scenario - offshore share transfers whose value is substantially attributable to underlying Indian assets.

QUESTION 199 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding organisational expenditure classification: (1) acquiring new technology counts as capital expenditure; (2) debt financing counts as capital expenditure while equity financing counts as revenue expenditure. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Acquiring new technology is indeed capital expenditure, but the choice of financing (debt vs equity) is a separate financing decision, unrelated to the capital/revenue expenditure classification.

QUESTION 200 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission: (1) both private and public hospitals must mandatorily adopt it; (2) it aims for universal citizen coverage eventually; (3) it offers seamless portability across the country. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Adoption of the Mission by hospitals and citizens is voluntary rather than mandatory, but it is indeed designed to offer seamless health-record portability nationwide.

QUESTION 201 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding US Federal Reserve tightening and External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs): (1) tight US Fed policy could lead to capital flight; (2) capital flight may raise the interest cost of firms with existing ECBs; (3) devaluing the domestic currency decreases the currency risk tied to ECBs. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Domestic currency devaluation actually increases, not decreases, the repayment burden and currency risk on foreign-currency ECBs, while the first two statements about Fed tightening and capital flight are accurate.

QUESTION 202 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding credit rating agencies in India: (1) they are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India; (2) ICRA is a public limited company; (3) Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Credit rating agencies in India are actually regulated by SEBI, not the RBI, while ICRA being a public limited company and Brickwork Ratings being an Indian agency are both accurate.

QUESTION 203 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)': (1) the Governor of RBI is its Chairman; (2) it recommends heads for Public Sector Banks; (3) it helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The BBB is chaired by an eminent person appointed by the government, not the RBI Governor, while its roles in recommending PSB leadership and advising on strategy/capital plans are accurate.

QUESTION 204 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Convertible Bonds: (1) since holders have the option to convert to equity, such bonds pay a lower interest rate; (2) this conversion option protects the bondholder against rising consumer prices. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Convertible bonds do carry lower coupon rates because of the equity-conversion sweetener, but the conversion feature is not designed as, and does not function as, an inflation-hedging mechanism.

QUESTION 205 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] In India, which body is primarily responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

Explanation: The RBI, through its monetary policy framework and inflation-targeting mandate, is the primary institution responsible for controlling inflation and price stability.

QUESTION 206 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs): (1) they enable digital representation of physical assets; (2) they are unique cryptographic tokens existing on a blockchain; (3) they can be traded interchangeably at equivalency, so they function as a medium of commercial transactions. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: NFTs do represent digital assets as unique blockchain-based tokens, but by definition each NFT is non-fungible - not interchangeable at equivalent value like currency - making statement 3 incorrect.

QUESTION 207 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] The money multiplier in an economy increases with which of these: a rise in the Cash Reserve Ratio; a rise in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio; a rise in the banking habits of the population; a rise in the country's population?

Explanation: Greater use of formal banking channels by the public raises the deposit multiplier effect, increasing the money multiplier; higher CRR and SLR actually reduce it.

QUESTION 208 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Demand-pull inflation in India can be caused/increased by which of these: expansionary policies, fiscal stimulus, inflation-indexed wages, higher purchasing power, rising interest rates?

Explanation: Expansionary policy, fiscal stimulus, and higher purchasing power all boost aggregate demand, causing demand-pull inflation; rising interest rates actually dampen demand, and wage indexation relates more to cost-push dynamics.

QUESTION 209 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding India's government-securities market: (1) retail investors can invest in Treasury Bills and G-Secs through Demat accounts in the primary market; (2) the 'Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching' is RBI's government-securities trading platform; (3) 'Central Depository Services Ltd' is jointly promoted by RBI and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Retail investors can indeed access G-Secs/T-Bills via Demat accounts in the primary market and NDS-OM is genuinely RBI's trading platform, but CDSL is actually promoted by the BSE along with other institutions, not jointly with the RBI.

QUESTION 210 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] In India, the central bank's role as 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of these: lending to trade/industry bodies when they fail to borrow elsewhere; providing liquidity to banks facing a temporary crisis; lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits?

Explanation: The lender-of-last-resort function specifically means providing emergency liquidity support to banks in temporary crisis, not general lending to industry or financing government deficits.

QUESTION 211 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding the RBI Governor: (1) appointed by the Central Government; (2) certain constitutional provisions give the Central Government the right to direct the RBI in public interest; (3) the Governor draws powers from the RBI Act. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Governor is indeed appointed by the government and derives statutory powers from the RBI Act, but the government's power to direct the RBI comes from the RBI Act itself (Section 7), not directly from the Constitution.

QUESTION 212 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which action is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

Explanation: Counter-cyclical fiscal policy calls for boosting government spending on public projects to stimulate demand during a recession.

QUESTION 213 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if: (1) the price of its substitute rises; (2) the price of its complement rises; (3) it is an inferior good and consumer incomes rise; (4) its own price falls. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Demand rises when a substitute becomes pricier or the good's own price falls; a rising complement price actually reduces demand, and for an inferior good, rising income reduces rather than increases demand.

QUESTION 214 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Indian Government Bond yields are influenced by which of the following: actions of the US Federal Reserve; actions of the Reserve Bank of India; inflation and short-term interest rates?

Explanation: Global monetary conditions, domestic monetary policy, and inflation/short-rate dynamics all genuinely feed into determining Indian government-bond yields.

QUESTION 215 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these can be included in Foreign Direct Investment: Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds; Foreign Institutional Investment (with certain conditions); Global Depository Receipts; Non-Resident External deposits?

Explanation: FCCBs, conditionally-qualifying FII investment, and GDRs can all be structured to count as FDI under Indian policy, whereas NRE deposits are simply NRI bank deposits, not investment/equity capital.

QUESTION 216 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding currency devaluation's effects: (1) it necessarily improves the competitiveness of domestic exports abroad; (2) it increases the foreign value of the domestic currency; (3) it necessarily improves the trade balance. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Devaluation does directly boost export competitiveness by making goods cheaper abroad, but it reduces (not increases) the domestic currency's foreign value, and an improved trade balance is not a guaranteed automatic outcome.

QUESTION 217 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which effect of black money generation in India has been the main worry for the Government of India?

Explanation: The core policy concern with black money is the substantial loss of legitimate tax revenue to the government due to concealment of income and tax evasion.

QUESTION 218 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

Explanation: Directly monetising the deficit by printing new money most directly expands money supply, making it the most inflationary financing method among these options.

QUESTION 219 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Among these crops, which is the most significant anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

Explanation: Flooded paddy (rice) cultivation is a major anthropogenic source of methane from anaerobic decomposition, and also contributes significantly to nitrous oxide emissions from fertiliser use.

QUESTION 220 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Consider these wetland-location pairs as originally listed: Hokera Wetland - Punjab; Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh; Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura; Sasthamkotta - Tamil Nadu. How many pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: Hokera Wetland is actually located in Jammu & Kashmir (not Punjab) and Sasthamkotta Lake is in Kerala (not Tamil Nadu), while Renuka Wetland (Himachal Pradesh) and Rudrasagar Lake (Tripura) are correctly matched.

QUESTION 221 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'Climate Action Tracker,' which monitors countries' emission-reduction pledges, is best described as:

Explanation: Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis produced by a consortium of research organisations, not a formal UN body.

QUESTION 222 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding global energy-efficiency and climate initiatives: (1) The Climate Group is an international non-profit driving climate action through large networks; (2) the International Energy Agency partnered with the Climate Group to launch 'EP100'; (3) EP100 brings together companies committed to energy-efficiency innovation and competitiveness while cutting emissions; (4) some Indian companies are EP100 members; (5) the IEA serves as Secretariat to the 'Under2 Coalition'. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: EP100 was actually launched by the Climate Group itself, not jointly with the IEA, and the Under2 Coalition's Secretariat is run by the Climate Group, not the IEA - but the Climate Group's role, EP100's goals, and Indian corporate membership are all accurate.

QUESTION 223 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'If rainforests are the lungs of the Earth, wetlands are its kidneys' - which function of wetlands best illustrates this analogy?

Explanation: Like kidneys filtering waste from blood, wetland plants filter out and absorb pollutants such as heavy metals and excess nutrients from water, purifying it.

QUESTION 224 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding WHO Air Quality Guidelines: (1) the 24-hour PM2.5 mean should not exceed 15 micrograms/m3 and the annual mean should not exceed 5 micrograms/m3; (2) ozone pollution peaks during periods of inclement (rainy) weather; (3) PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier into the bloodstream; (4) excess ozone can trigger asthma. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: WHO's guideline values for PM2.5 and ozone's asthma-triggering effect are accurate, but it is fine particulate PM2.5, not PM10, that can cross into the bloodstream, and ozone pollution actually peaks during hot, sunny weather rather than rainy weather.

QUESTION 225 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding 'Gucchi' (morel mushroom), sometimes mentioned in the news: (1) it is a fungus; (2) it grows in some Himalayan forest areas; (3) it is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Gucchi is indeed a wild fungus found in certain Himalayan forests, but it has not been successfully commercially cultivated at scale - it remains largely wild-harvested rather than farmed.

QUESTION 226 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding polyethylene terephthalate (PET), widely used in daily life: (1) its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties; (2) containers made of it can safely store any alcoholic beverage; (3) bottles made of it can be recycled into other products; (4) articles made of it can be incinerated without any greenhouse gas emissions. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: PET fibres are genuinely blended into textiles and PET is genuinely recyclable, but it is not suitable for storing all alcoholic beverages, especially high-alcohol-content ones, and its incineration does release greenhouse gases.

QUESTION 227 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these is NOT a bird?

Explanation: The Golden Mahseer is actually a large freshwater game fish, whereas the other three are all bird species.

QUESTION 228 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these are nitrogen-fixing plants: Alfalfa, Amaranth, Chickpea, Clover, Purslane, Spinach?

Explanation: Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes capable of nitrogen fixation via root-nodule bacteria, while amaranth, purslane and spinach are non-leguminous plants without this capacity.

QUESTION 229 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] 'Biorock technology' is talked about in which situation?

Explanation: Biorock technology uses low-voltage electrical currents to accrete minerals onto submerged structures, accelerating coral growth and reef restoration.

QUESTION 230 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] The 'Miyawaki method' is well known for:

Explanation: The Miyawaki method is a Japanese afforestation technique for rapidly growing dense, native mini-forests, especially suited to urban spaces.

QUESTION 231 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which of these has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

Explanation: The Central Ground Water Authority was established using powers delegated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, specifically to regulate groundwater extraction.

QUESTION 232 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which statement best describes the 'Polar Code'?

Explanation: The Polar Code is an International Maritime Organization instrument establishing safety and environmental standards for ships operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters.

QUESTION 233 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Which best describes the term 'greenwashing'?

Explanation: Greenwashing refers to companies deceptively marketing their products or practices as more environmentally friendly than they actually are.

QUESTION 234 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Regarding Indian wildlife-protection law: (1) wild animals are the sole property of the government; (2) once declared protected, an animal receives equal protection whether found inside or outside a protected area; (3) mere apprehension that a protected animal poses danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Under the Wildlife Protection Act, wild animals are legally state property, and protected species get uniform legal protection regardless of location, but capture or killing actually requires more than mere apprehension of danger - it needs a determination of genuine, imminent threat.

QUESTION 235 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Certain species of which of these organisms are well known for cultivating fungi as a food source?

Explanation: Certain ant species, notably leafcutter ants, cultivate fungus gardens as their primary food source, a striking example of agriculture in the animal kingdom.

QUESTION 236 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2022] Excess of which of these in the environment is a cause of acid rain: carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, ozone, sulphur dioxide?

Explanation: Nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide react with atmospheric moisture to form nitric and sulphuric acids, the chief chemical causes of acid rain; carbon monoxide and ozone are not major contributors.

QUESTION 237 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding Hyderabad's 'Tree City of the World' recognition for 2020: Statement 1 says the UN Capital Development Fund and Arbor Day Foundation jointly recognised the city; Statement 2 says it was recognised for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain urban forests. Which is correct?

Explanation: The 'Tree Cities of the World' programme is actually run jointly by the FAO and the Arbor Day Foundation, not the UN Capital Development Fund, making Statement 1 as framed incorrect, while the reasoning in Statement 2 about the programme's actual criteria does hold true.

QUESTION 238 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding India's Climate-Smart Agriculture efforts: (1) the 'Climate-Smart Village' approach is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme; (2) CCAFS operates under CGIAR, headquartered in France; (3) ICRISAT in India is one of CGIAR's research centres. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: All three facts are accurate: CCAFS leads the Climate-Smart Village initiative under the CGIAR consortium headquartered in France, and ICRISAT is indeed a CGIAR research centre based in India.

QUESTION 239 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these organisms are primary producers in ocean food chains: copepods, cyanobacteria, diatoms, foraminifera?

Explanation: Cyanobacteria and diatoms are photosynthetic organisms forming the primary-producer base of marine food chains, whereas copepods and foraminifera are consumers, not producers.

QUESTION 240 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of these animals roll up to protect their vulnerable parts: hedgehog, marmot, pangolin?

Explanation: Both hedgehogs and pangolins curl into a tight ball to shield their soft undersides from predators, while marmots do not display this rolling-up defence behaviour.

QUESTION 241 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Regarding the 'New York Declaration on Forests': (1) it was first endorsed at the 2014 UN Climate Summit; (2) it endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests; (3) it is a legally binding international declaration; (4) it is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities; (5) India was one of its founding signatories. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Declaration was indeed launched at the 2014 UN Climate Summit with a timeline to halt forest loss and broad multi-stakeholder endorsement, but it is a voluntary, non-binding declaration, and India was notably not among its original signatories.

QUESTION 242 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of these sources: brakes of motor vehicles, engines of motor vehicles, microwave ovens within homes, power plants, telephone lines?

Explanation: Vehicle brake wear, engine combustion, and power-plant emissions are documented sources of airborne magnetite particulates, whereas microwave ovens and telephone lines are not recognised sources of this pollutant.

QUESTION 243 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Which of these is a filter feeder?

Explanation: Oysters filter large volumes of water to strain out plankton and organic particles for food, making them classic filter feeders.

QUESTION 244 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] In which biogeochemical cycle is the weathering of rocks the main source of nutrient release into the cycle?

Explanation: Unlike carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, which have significant atmospheric reservoirs, phosphorus lacks a gaseous phase and enters ecosystems chiefly through weathering of phosphate-bearing rocks.

QUESTION 245 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Among earthworms, jellyfish, seahorses and woodlice, which are detritivores (feeders on decaying organic matter)?

Explanation: Earthworms and woodlice both consume decomposing organic matter in soil and leaf litter, functioning as detritivores, unlike jellyfish (planktivores/carnivores) and seahorses (small-crustacean feeders).

QUESTION 246 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] The 'Common Carbon Metric,' supported by UNEP, was developed for which purpose?

Explanation: The Common Carbon Metric was specifically designed to consistently measure and report greenhouse gas emissions from building operations across different countries.

QUESTION 247 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] The 'R2 Code of Practices' is a tool that promotes the adoption of:

Explanation: The R2 (Responsible Recycling) Standard sets practices for environmentally sound and safe handling of electronic waste in the recycling industry.

QUESTION 248 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] Why are copper smelting plants a source of environmental concern: (1) they may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide; (2) copper slag can cause leaching of heavy metals into the environment; (3) they may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant?

Explanation: Copper smelting is a genuine source of heavy-metal leaching from slag and of sulphur dioxide emissions, but release of lethal carbon monoxide is not considered a primary hazard specifically associated with copper smelting.

QUESTION 249 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] What is 'blue carbon'?

Explanation: 'Blue carbon' specifically refers to carbon captured and stored by marine and coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, seagrasses and salt marshes.

QUESTION 250 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2021] In nature, which of these are most likely to survive on a bare surface without soil: fern, lichen, moss, mushroom?

Explanation: Lichens and mosses are pioneer organisms capable of colonising bare rock or other soil-less surfaces, unlike ferns and mushrooms, which typically need soil or organic substrates.

QUESTION 251 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in which of the following ways: (1) soil formation; (2) prevention of soil erosion; (3) recycling of waste; (4) pollination of crops?

Explanation: Biodiversity underpins all four processes - it aids soil formation, checks erosion, recycles waste through decomposers, and enables crop pollination.

QUESTION 252 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] 'Oil zapper', which was recently in the news, refers to what?

Explanation: Oil zapper is a bacterial consortium-based eco-friendly technology developed by TERI to bio-remediate oily sludge and oil spills.

QUESTION 253 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp: (1) a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor to produce light while an LED uses a semi-conductor material; (2) a CFL has a much longer average lifespan than an LED lamp; (3) a CFL is less energy-efficient than an LED lamp?

Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct - CFLs rely on mercury vapour/phosphor versus LED semiconductors, and CFLs are less efficient. Statement 2 is reversed: LEDs actually last far longer than CFLs.

QUESTION 254 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] A new optical disc format called the Blu-ray disc (BD) differs from a traditional DVD in that: (1) DVD supports standard-definition video while BD supports high-definition video; (2) compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity; (3) the thickness of a BD is 2.4 mm while a DVD is 1.2 mm?

Explanation: BD supports high-definition video and offers much greater storage capacity than DVD, so statements 1 and 2 hold. Statement 3 is wrong, since BD and DVD discs share the same 1.2 mm thickness.

QUESTION 255 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well known for what?

Explanation: Usha Mehta ran an underground 'Secret Congress Radio' broadcasting station during the Quit India Movement of 1942.

QUESTION 256 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] With reference to the period of the Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru Report: (1) complete independence for India; (2) joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities; (3) provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the constitution?

Explanation: The Nehru Report of 1928 favoured Dominion Status (not complete independence) but did recommend joint electorates and a bill of fundamental rights, so only statements 2 and 3 hold.

QUESTION 257 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Which state has the most suitable climatic conditions to cultivate a wide variety of orchids at minimum cost and develop an export-oriented orchid industry?

Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh's humid north-eastern climate is naturally suited to large-scale, low-cost orchid cultivation.

QUESTION 258 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Which one of the following is NOT a site for in-situ conservation of flora?

Explanation: Botanical gardens conserve plants outside their natural habitat and so represent ex-situ conservation, unlike biosphere reserves, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries.

QUESTION 259 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] What is the difference between a 'vote-on-account' and an interim budget: (1) a vote-on-account is used by a regular government while an interim budget is used by a caretaker government; (2) a vote-on-account deals only with government expenditure while an interim budget covers both expenditure and receipts?

Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct - a vote-on-account covers expenditure alone, whereas an interim budget presents both receipts and expenditure. Statement 1 is wrong since an interim budget is typically presented by an incoming, not caretaker, government.

QUESTION 260 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. Such an orbit is one where: (1) the orbit is geosynchronous; (2) the orbit is circular; (3) the orbit lies in the plane of the earth's equator; (4) the orbit is at an altitude of about 22,236 miles?

Explanation: A geostationary orbit is geosynchronous, circular, and equatorial - matching statements 1-3. Statement 4 is correct in miles (about 35,786 km) but the way it is worded without the correct unit makes it inconsistent, so only the first three hold.

QUESTION 261 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] In terms of economics, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the Commonwealth Games in India amounted to which of the following?

Explanation: Foreign tourists' spending in India is recorded as an 'invisible export' under services in the Balance of Payments.

QUESTION 262 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Which one of the following statements appropriately describes 'fiscal stimulus'?

Explanation: Fiscal stimulus refers to deliberate, proactive government spending or tax measures aimed at boosting overall economic activity, typically during a slowdown.

QUESTION 263 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] The formation of the ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

Explanation: Polar stratospheric clouds provide surfaces on which chlorine from CFCs is activated, and this chlorine catalyses the photochemical destruction of ozone over Antarctica.

QUESTION 264 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Two rivers - one with its source in Jharkhand (known by a different name in Odisha) and another with its source in Odisha - merge just short of the Bay of Bengal coast at an important wildlife and biodiversity protected area. Which one is this?

Explanation: The rivers Brahmani and Baitarani merge just before reaching the Bay of Bengal at Bhitarkanika, a renowned mangrove and wildlife sanctuary in Odisha.

QUESTION 265 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] India is regarded as a country with a 'demographic dividend'. This is due to what?

Explanation: A demographic dividend arises when a country has a disproportionately large working-age population (15-64 years) relative to dependents.

QUESTION 266 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] The USA decided to support India's membership of the multilateral export control regimes called the 'Australia Group' and the 'Wassenaar Arrangement'. Regarding the difference between them: (1) the Australia Group aims to check chemical/biological weapons proliferation and is informal, while the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal OECD group with identical objectives; (2) the Australia Group comprises mainly Asian, African and North American countries, while Wassenaar members are mainly from the EU and the Americas. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Both statements are wrong - the Wassenaar Arrangement is not an OECD body, and the Australia Group actually has very few Asian/African members (mainly Japan), unlike Wassenaar which includes Japan and South Africa too.

QUESTION 267 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species that has no predators there, but whose existence is threatened due to habitat destruction. Which animal is this?

Explanation: The Indian wild ass survives in the saline, sandy expanses of the Rann of Kutch, where habitat loss - not predation - is its main threat.

QUESTION 268 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] La Nina, suspected of causing floods in Australia, differs from El Nino how: (1) La Nina features unusually cold ocean temperatures in the equatorial Pacific while El Nino features unusually warm temperatures there; (2) El Nino adversely affects India's south-west monsoon while La Nina has no effect on it?

Explanation: Both statements are inaccurate - La Nina is a cooling of the equatorial Pacific (not the Indian Ocean) and, far from having no effect, La Nina years are typically associated with a good south-west monsoon in India.

QUESTION 269 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] Which one of the following observations about the Quit India Movement of 1942 is NOT true?

Explanation: Although Gandhi called for non-violence, the Quit India Movement actually saw widespread violent acts such as burning of police stations and railway lines, so calling it purely non-violent is incorrect.

QUESTION 270 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2011] What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi organising a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda: (1) the administration did not suspend land revenue collection despite a drought; (2) the administration proposed to introduce the permanent settlement in Gujarat?

Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct - the Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was triggered by the government's refusal to waive land revenue despite crop failure from drought/floods; the permanent settlement was never proposed there.

QUESTION 271 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. What does it symbolise?

Explanation: The Bhumisparsha ('earth-touching') Mudra depicts Buddha summoning the earth goddess to bear witness to his enlightenment and resistance to Mara's temptations.

QUESTION 272 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] The religion of the early Vedic Aryans was primarily one of what?

Explanation: Early Vedic religion centred on worship of natural forces (Agni, Indra, Varuna, etc.) through fire sacrifices (yajnas), with neither image worship nor Bhakti yet developed.

QUESTION 273 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Regarding the Brahmo Samaj: (1) it opposed idolatry; (2) it denied the need for a priestly class to interpret religious texts; (3) it popularised the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: The Brahmo Samaj opposed idolatry and rejected the need for priestly intermediaries, but it did not treat the Vedas as infallible - several of its members, including Devendranath Tagore, questioned Vedic infallibility.

QUESTION 274 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a 'bankers' bank'. This implies: (1) other banks keep their deposits with the RBI; (2) the RBI lends to commercial banks in times of need; (3) the RBI advises commercial banks on monetary matters. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Acting as bankers' bank chiefly means the RBI holds other banks' reserve deposits and acts as lender of last resort - statements 1 and 2. The advisory role (statement 3) is a separate, more ambiguous function.

QUESTION 275 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise: (1) an increase in the sales of a product; (2) a natural increase in the value of property owned; (3) an increase in the value of a purchased painting due to growing popularity?

Explanation: Capital gains arise from an increase in the value of an asset already owned (property, art, collectibles), as in statements 2 and 3 - not from increased sales revenue, which is business income.

QUESTION 276 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Which of the following measures would increase the money supply in the economy: (1) purchase of government securities from the public by the central bank; (2) deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public; (3) borrowing by the government from the central bank; (4) sale of government securities to the public by the central bank?

Explanation: Money supply rises whenever funds flow out of the central bank into the economy - when it buys securities from the public (1) or lends to a borrowing government (3). Statement 2 is a mere transfer with no net effect, and statement 4 withdraws money from circulation.

QUESTION 277 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Which of the following would count as Foreign Direct Investment in India: (1) subsidiaries of foreign companies in India; (2) majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies; (3) companies exclusively financed by foreign companies; (4) portfolio investment?

Explanation: FDI involves a controlling or management stake - subsidiaries, majority equity holdings, and wholly foreign-financed companies all qualify, whereas portfolio investment (statement 4) is a separate category involving no management control.

QUESTION 278 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] The price of a currency in the international market is decided chiefly by which factors: (1) the World Bank; (2) demand for goods/services provided by the concerned country; (3) stability of the concerned government; (4) economic potential of the country?

Explanation: Currency prices are chiefly driven by market forces linked to trade demand and perceived political/economic stability, not by any single institution like the World Bank fixing rates.

QUESTION 279 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] What is the basic aim of the Lead Bank Scheme?

Explanation: Under the Lead Bank Scheme, each district is assigned to a specific bank that acts as a consortium leader coordinating credit planning and branch expansion for that district's development.

QUESTION 280 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Consider: (1) assessment of land revenue based on soil nature and crop quality; (2) use of mobile cannons in warfare; (3) cultivation of tobacco and red chillies. Which of these was/were introduced into India by the English?

Explanation: None of these were English introductions - Raja Todar Mal (under Akbar) had already introduced soil/crop-based revenue assessment, Babur used mobile artillery well before the British, and tobacco/chillies came via the Portuguese.

QUESTION 281 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Regarding the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India: (1) every guild was registered with the central state authority, with the king as chief administrative authority; (2) wages, work rules, standards and prices were fixed by the guild; (3) the guild had judicial powers over its own members. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Kautilya's Arthashastra describes guild registration under royal authority, guild-set rules on wages/prices, and special tribunals giving guilds judicial powers over members - all three statements hold.

QUESTION 282 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in which act?

Explanation: India's Union-State legislative distribution of powers (Union, State and Concurrent Lists) closely follows the scheme first laid out in the Government of India Act, 1935.

QUESTION 283 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Despite having large coal reserves, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal: (1) India saves its own reserves for the future and imports for present use; (2) most Indian power plants are coal-based and cannot get sufficient domestic supply; (3) steel companies need large quantities of coking coal that must be imported?

Explanation: India imports coal mainly because domestic supply falls short of power-plant demand and because high-grade coking coal needed for steel-making is scarce domestically - statements 2 and 3.

QUESTION 284 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] A person stood alone in a desert at night, wanting to reach his village 5 km east, with no instruments except a view of the polestar. What is the most convenient way to reach the village?

Explanation: Since the polestar marks true north and the village lies east, the person should keep the polestar to his left while walking so as to head east.

QUESTION 285 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] There has been concern over the short supply of 'rare earth metals'. Why: (1) China, the largest producer, has restricted their export; (2) apart from China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are found in no other country; (3) rare earth metals are essential for various electronic items with growing demand?

Explanation: China's export curbs and rising electronics demand (statements 1 and 3) explain the shortage concern; statement 2 is false, as rare earths occur, in varying quantities, in many more countries.

QUESTION 286 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Biomass gasification is considered a sustainable power solution. Regarding it: (1) coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used; (2) gases generated consist only of hydrogen and carbon dioxide; (3) gases generated can only be used for direct heat, not in internal combustion engines. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct - agricultural residues like coconut/groundnut shells and rice husk are viable gasification feedstocks. The producer gas actually contains carbon monoxide too, and it can indeed power internal combustion engines.

QUESTION 287 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in water purification systems: (1) it inactivates/kills harmful microorganisms; (2) it removes undesirable odours from water; (3) it quickens sedimentation and improves clarity?

Explanation: UV disinfection works only by inactivating microorganisms; it does not alter water's taste, odour, colour, or turbidity, so statements 2 and 3 do not apply.

QUESTION 288 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2012] Graphene is frequently in the news. Regarding its importance: (1) it is a two-dimensional material with good electrical conductivity; (2) it is one of the thinnest yet strongest materials tested so far; (3) it is made entirely of silicon with high optical transparency; (4) it can be used as conducting electrodes for touch screens and LEDs. Which are correct?

Explanation: Graphene is a two-dimensional carbon (not silicon) allotrope that is exceptionally thin, strong, and electrically conductive, making it useful as a transparent conducting electrode - so statements 1, 2 and 4 hold, while statement 3 wrongly calls it silicon-based.

QUESTION 289 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes lending to which of the following?

Explanation: Priority sector lending norms cover agriculture, micro/small enterprises, weaker sections and other specified categories together, not any one segment alone.

QUESTION 290 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] To obtain the full benefits of the demographic dividend, what should India primarily do?

Explanation: Reaping the demographic dividend requires raising the intrinsic productivity of the workforce, which is best achieved through skill development that improves total factor productivity.

QUESTION 291 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] In the context of India's cultural history, the dance/dramatic pose called 'Tribhanga' is best described by which statement?

Explanation: Tribhanga literally means 'three bends' - at the neck, waist and knee - giving the body a gentle S-shaped, feminine stance, considered among the most graceful Odissi postures.

QUESTION 292 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] A rise in the general price level may be caused by: (1) an increase in the money supply; (2) a decrease in the aggregate level of output; (3) an increase in effective demand. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: All three are classic inflationary triggers - more money chasing the same goods, a fall in output leaving less to buy, and higher effective demand outpacing supply.

QUESTION 293 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Which group of items is included in India's Foreign Exchange Reserves?

Explanation: India's forex reserves comprise foreign-currency assets, RBI gold holdings, SDRs, and its reserve tranche position with the IMF - not loans from foreign countries or the World Bank.

QUESTION 294 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] With money supply held constant, an increase in demand for money would lead to what?

Explanation: If money supply is fixed and demand for money rises, the price of holding money - the interest rate - rises correspondingly.

QUESTION 295 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit a longer storage life because of what?

Explanation: Low temperatures slow the respiration process by which fruits break down sugars, thereby delaying senescence and extending storage life.

QUESTION 296 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Consider the following fauna of India: (1) Gharial; (2) Leatherback turtle; (3) Swamp deer. Which among these is/are endangered?

Explanation: The Gharial and the Leatherback turtle are both critically endangered, whereas the swamp deer (barasingha) is classified as vulnerable, not endangered.

QUESTION 297 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because of what?

Explanation: Since a sphere touches a surface at only a tiny point, ball bearings drastically cut the effective contact area between wheel and axle, reducing friction and letting them spin smoothly.

QUESTION 298 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2013] Consider the following phenomena: (1) size of the sun at dusk; (2) colour of the sun at dawn; (3) moon being visible at dawn; (4) twinkle of stars in the sky; (5) polestar being visible in the sky. Which of these are optical illusions?

Explanation: The apparent enlargement of the sun near the horizon, the reddish colour of dawn light, and star twinkling from atmospheric refraction are all optical illusions - unlike the moon's actual visibility or the polestar's real fixed position, which are not.

QUESTION 299 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] What does the term 'venture capital' mean?

Explanation: Venture capital refers to long-term risk capital provided to fund new, often high-growth-potential, entrepreneurial ventures.

QUESTION 300 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] Consider the following pairs: (1) Dampa Tiger Reserve - Mizoram; (2) Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary - Tripura; (3) Saramati Peak - Nagaland. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: Dampa Tiger Reserve is indeed in Mizoram and Saramati peak lies in Nagaland; however, the Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary pairing as originally framed does not hold up, so only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

QUESTION 301 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a tax collected by which authority?

Explanation: Sales tax on goods like toothpaste is a state subject, imposed and collected by the respective State Government.

QUESTION 302 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] Consider the following pairs: (1) Harike Wetlands - confluence of the Beas and Satluj rivers; (2) Keoladeo Ghana National Park - a natural marsh dependent on canal irrigation; (3) Kolleru Lake - located between the Krishna and Godavari river deltas. Which pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: Only the Harike Wetlands pairing is precisely correct as stated - it does mark the confluence of the Beas and Satluj rivers in Punjab; the other two pairs contain inaccuracies about their described character.

QUESTION 303 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] Turkey is located between which two seas?

Explanation: Turkey occupies the Anatolian peninsula, bounded by the Black Sea to the north and the Mediterranean Sea to the south.

QUESTION 304 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2014] Budding and grafting, used in fruit plant propagation, are examples of what kind of technique, as distinct from genetic engineering used to create transgenic crops?

Explanation: Budding and grafting are age-old vegetative propagation methods and are distinct from the recombinant-DNA-based techniques actually used to create genetically modified transgenic crops.

QUESTION 305 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] Which of the following places is/are included in the Ambedkar Circuit developed by the Government of India?

Explanation: The Ambedkar Circuit links sites tied to Dr B. R. Ambedkar's life and legacy - his birthplace Mhow, his London residence, Deeksha Bhoomi in Nagpur, Mahaparinirvan Sthal in Delhi, and Chaitya Bhoomi in Mumbai.

QUESTION 306 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] The Sarkaria Commission, constituted in 1983 to examine Centre-State relations, recommended which of the following?

Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission recommended establishing a permanent Inter-State Council for Centre-State coordination while endorsing that residuary legislative powers should continue to rest with Parliament, as under the existing constitutional scheme.

QUESTION 307 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] The National Dam Safety Authority, set up under the Dam Safety Act, functions through how many wings and of what kind?

Explanation: The National Dam Safety Authority operates through five wings - policy and research, technical, regulation, disaster and resilience, and administration and finance - to standardise dam safety practices nationally.

QUESTION 308 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] A newly described marine tardigrade species discovered off the Tamil Nadu coast in 2023 was named in honour of which former President of India?

Explanation: The marine tardigrade 'Batillipes kalami', the first taxonomically described species of its genus from India, was named after Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

QUESTION 309 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] The Battle of Saraighat (1671), fought between the Mughals and the Ahoms, is notable for what?

Explanation: At the naval Battle of Saraighat on the Brahmaputra near Guwahati, Ahom general Lachit Borphukan's forces defeated the much larger Mughal army led by Ram Singh I, checking further Mughal expansion into Assam.

QUESTION 310 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] Sammed Shikharji, which was in the news over its notification as an eco-sensitive/tourist zone, is a major pilgrimage site of which religion?

Explanation: Sammed Shikharji in Jharkhand's Parasnath Hills is the holiest Jain pilgrimage site, revered as the place where most Jain Tirthankaras attained liberation; a 2023 eco-tourism zone notification sparked protests from the Jain community.

QUESTION 311 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2023] Which international agencies respectively publish the 'Global Gender Gap Report' and the 'Gender Inequality Index'?

Explanation: The World Economic Forum publishes the annual Global Gender Gap Report, while the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) computes the Gender Inequality Index as part of its Human Development Report.

QUESTION 312 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2024] Regarding the heating of the atmosphere: Statement-I: the atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long-wave radiation. Which is correct?

Explanation: In reality, the atmosphere is heated predominantly by outgoing long-wave terrestrial radiation, not directly by incoming shortwave solar radiation, making Statement-I false; greenhouse gases like CO2 do strongly absorb long-wave radiation, so Statement-II is true.

QUESTION 313 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2024] Statement-I: the thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater compared to the poles. Statement-II: at the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which is correct?

Explanation: Strong convective heating at the equator carries heat to much greater heights than at the poles, which is precisely why the troposphere there is considerably thicker - so Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.

QUESTION 314 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2024] Consider: (1) pyroclastic debris; (2) ash and dust; (3) nitrogen compounds; (4) sulphur compounds. How many of these are products of volcanic eruptions?

Explanation: Volcanic eruptions typically release pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, and sulphur compounds; nitrogen compounds are not a characteristic volcanic emission, so only three of the four qualify.

QUESTION 315 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2024] Regarding isothermal maps for the month of January: (1) isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent; (2) the presence of cold ocean currents - the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift - makes the North Atlantic colder, bending the isotherms towards the north. Which is/are correct?

Explanation: In January, isotherms do bend poleward over oceans (warmer than land) and equatorward over continents, so statement 1 holds; however, the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold ones, making statement 2 factually wrong.

QUESTION 316 OF 316

[UPSC Prelims 2024] Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

Explanation: Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana together account for over half of the world's cocoa production, making them by far the largest producers globally.

UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions (PYQ)

Want the complete UPSC Prelims audit?