201 free questions on Indian Polity & Constitution for UPSC, State PSC, SSC and RRB exams. Click an option to instantly check your answer and read the explanation.
The Constitution of India was adopted on which date?
Explanation: The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
QUESTION 2 OF 201
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, chairman of the Drafting Committee, is known as the 'Father of the Indian Constitution'.
QUESTION 3 OF 201
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a:
Explanation: The Preamble declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.
QUESTION 4 OF 201
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
QUESTION 5 OF 201
The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which part of the Constitution?
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.
QUESTION 6 OF 201
Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
Explanation: The Governor of a state in India is appointed by the President.
QUESTION 7 OF 201
The minimum age required to become a member of the Lok Sabha is:
Explanation: The minimum age to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
QUESTION 8 OF 201
Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability.
QUESTION 9 OF 201
The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties from which country?
Explanation: The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties from the USSR (Soviet Union).
QUESTION 10 OF 201
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: The Indian Constitution currently guarantees 6 Fundamental Rights, after the Right to Property was removed.
QUESTION 11 OF 201
The concept of "Judicial Review" in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country?
Explanation: The concept of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the USA.
QUESTION 12 OF 201
Who was the first President of India?
Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad served as the first President of India.
QUESTION 13 OF 201
The concept of "Directive Principles of State Policy" was borrowed from the Constitution of:
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
QUESTION 14 OF 201
Which amendment to the Indian Constitution is known as the "Mini-Constitution" due to its extensive changes?
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment is known as the 'Mini-Constitution' due to its extensive changes.
QUESTION 15 OF 201
The Indian Constitution provides for how many types of Emergency?
Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides for three types of Emergency: National, State (President's Rule) and Financial.
QUESTION 16 OF 201
Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Explanation: The Vice President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION 17 OF 201
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act deals with:
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act deals with Panchayati Raj institutions.
QUESTION 18 OF 201
Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of recognized languages?
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains the list of officially recognized languages.
QUESTION 19 OF 201
The Anti-Defection Law is covered under which schedule of the Constitution?
Explanation: The Anti-Defection Law is covered under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
QUESTION 20 OF 201
Who has the power to declare a National Emergency under Article 352?
Explanation: The President of India has the power to declare a National Emergency under Article 352.
QUESTION 21 OF 201
The Indian Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic:
Explanation: The Indian Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic Republic.
QUESTION 22 OF 201
The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
Explanation: The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment (1976).
QUESTION 23 OF 201
The Indian Constitution was originally adopted with how many Fundamental Rights (before deletion of one)?
Explanation: The Indian Constitution was originally adopted with seven Fundamental Rights.
QUESTION 24 OF 201
The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which constitutional amendment?
Explanation: The Right to Property was removed from the Fundamental Rights list by the 44th Amendment (1978).
QUESTION 25 OF 201
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees which fundamental right?
Explanation: Article 21 guarantees Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.
QUESTION 26 OF 201
Article 32, which allows citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, was called by Dr. Ambedkar as:
Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution, as it allows direct approach to the Supreme Court for rights enforcement.
QUESTION 27 OF 201
The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in which part of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.
QUESTION 28 OF 201
The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were added to the Constitution by which amendment, based on the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee recommendations?
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), based on the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee's recommendations.
QUESTION 29 OF 201
How many Fundamental Duties are currently listed in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: Article 51A currently lists eleven Fundamental Duties.
QUESTION 30 OF 201
The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the constitution of which country?
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy were borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
QUESTION 31 OF 201
The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was primarily borrowed from the constitution of which country?
Explanation: The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution were primarily borrowed from the United States Constitution.
QUESTION 32 OF 201
The parliamentary system of government in India was adopted from which country's model?
Explanation: India's parliamentary system of government was adopted from the United Kingdom's model.
QUESTION 33 OF 201
The federal system with a strong center in the Indian Constitution was influenced by which country's constitution?
Explanation: The federal system with a strong center was influenced by Canada's constitution.
QUESTION 34 OF 201
The concept of a Concurrent List (shared legislative subjects) in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from:
Explanation: The Concurrent List concept in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from Australia.
QUESTION 35 OF 201
The procedure for amending the Indian Constitution was influenced by the constitution of:
Explanation: The procedure for amending the Indian Constitution was influenced by the South African constitution.
QUESTION 36 OF 201
India's Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world, with how many original articles (approximately)?
Explanation: India's Constitution, the longest in the world, originally had approximately 395 articles.
QUESTION 37 OF 201
The Constituent Assembly of India took approximately how long to draft the Constitution?
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly took approximately 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to draft the Constitution.
QUESTION 38 OF 201
Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability.
QUESTION 39 OF 201
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees which fundamental right?
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law.
QUESTION 40 OF 201
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees which of the following freedoms?
Explanation: Article 19 guarantees freedom of speech and expression, among other freedoms.
QUESTION 41 OF 201
Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees which fundamental right?
Explanation: Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion.
QUESTION 42 OF 201
The Right to Education as a Fundamental Right was added through which constitutional amendment?
Explanation: The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right through the 86th Amendment (2002).
QUESTION 43 OF 201
Article 32 empowers which court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
QUESTION 44 OF 201
Article 226 empowers which courts to issue writs?
Explanation: Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue writs.
QUESTION 45 OF 201
The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to:
Explanation: The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to produce a detained person before the court.
QUESTION 46 OF 201
The writ of Mandamus is issued to:
Explanation: The writ of Mandamus commands a public authority to perform its official duty.
QUESTION 47 OF 201
The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to:
Explanation: The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to quash an order of a lower court or tribunal.
QUESTION 48 OF 201
The writ of Prohibition is issued to:
Explanation: The writ of Prohibition prevents a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
QUESTION 49 OF 201
The writ of Quo Warranto is issued to question:
Explanation: The writ of Quo Warranto questions the legal authority of a person holding public office.
QUESTION 50 OF 201
The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of elected members of Parliament and:
Explanation: The President of India is elected by an Electoral College including elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
QUESTION 51 OF 201
The minimum age required to become President of India is:
Explanation: The minimum age required to become President of India is 35 years.
QUESTION 52 OF 201
The term of office of the President of India is:
Explanation: The President of India serves a term of 5 years.
QUESTION 53 OF 201
The Vice-President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of which body?
Explanation: The Vice-President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION 54 OF 201
The minimum age required to become Vice-President of India is:
Explanation: The minimum age required to become Vice-President of India is 35 years.
QUESTION 55 OF 201
Article 74 of the Constitution mandates that the President act on the advice of:
Explanation: Article 74 mandates that the President act on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
QUESTION 56 OF 201
The Prime Minister of India is appointed by:
Explanation: The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the President.
QUESTION 57 OF 201
The maximum gap allowed between two sessions of Parliament cannot exceed:
Explanation: The maximum gap allowed between two sessions of Parliament cannot exceed 6 months.
QUESTION 58 OF 201
Money Bills can only be introduced in which house of Parliament?
Explanation: Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION 59 OF 201
The Rajya Sabha, the upper house of Parliament, is a permanent body, but its members serve terms of:
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body, with members serving 6-year terms and one-third retiring every two years.
QUESTION 60 OF 201
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, as per constitutional provisions, is:
Explanation: The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, per constitutional provisions, is 552 members.
QUESTION 61 OF 201
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha, as per constitutional provisions, is:
Explanation: The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha, per constitutional provisions, is 250 members.
QUESTION 62 OF 201
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:
Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION 63 OF 201
In the event of a tie in Lok Sabha voting, who casts the deciding vote?
Explanation: In case of a tie in Lok Sabha voting, the Speaker casts the deciding (casting) vote.
QUESTION 64 OF 201
A No-Confidence Motion against the government can be moved in which house of Parliament?
Explanation: A No-Confidence Motion against the government can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION 65 OF 201
A Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament is presided over by:
Explanation: A Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
QUESTION 66 OF 201
The Anti-Defection Law is contained in which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: The Anti-Defection Law is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
QUESTION 67 OF 201
The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through which constitutional amendment?
Explanation: The Anti-Defection Law was introduced through the 52nd Amendment (1985).
QUESTION 68 OF 201
The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, dealing with laws immune from judicial review, was inserted by which amendment?
Explanation: The Ninth Schedule, dealing with laws immune from judicial review, was inserted by the 1st Amendment (1951).
QUESTION 69 OF 201
The Supreme Court's ruling in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established which important doctrine?
Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the Basic Structure Doctrine.
QUESTION 70 OF 201
The Basic Structure Doctrine limits Parliament's power to:
Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution in ways that alter its fundamental framework.
QUESTION 71 OF 201
The minimum age for a person to become a member of the Lok Sabha is:
Explanation: The minimum age to become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
QUESTION 72 OF 201
The minimum age for a person to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
Explanation: The minimum age to become a member of the Rajya Sabha is 30 years.
QUESTION 73 OF 201
The Chief Justice of India and other Supreme Court judges are appointed by:
Explanation: The Chief Justice of India and Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President, based on the Collegium system's recommendation.
QUESTION 74 OF 201
The retirement age for Supreme Court judges in India is:
Explanation: The retirement age for Supreme Court judges in India is 65 years.
QUESTION 75 OF 201
The retirement age for High Court judges in India is:
Explanation: The retirement age for High Court judges in India is 62 years.
QUESTION 76 OF 201
Article 143 of the Constitution empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of which body?
Explanation: Article 143 empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court.
QUESTION 77 OF 201
The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor to:
Explanation: The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India.
QUESTION 78 OF 201
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India audits the accounts of:
Explanation: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) audits the accounts of both Union and State governments.
QUESTION 79 OF 201
The Election Commission of India was established as per which article of the Constitution?
Explanation: The Election Commission of India was established under Article 324 of the Constitution.
QUESTION 80 OF 201
The Finance Commission of India, dealing with distribution of financial resources between Centre and States, is constituted under which article?
Explanation: The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 to address Centre-State financial distribution.
QUESTION 81 OF 201
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under which article of the Constitution?
Explanation: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under Article 315.
QUESTION 82 OF 201
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of:
Explanation: Article 352 deals with the declaration of National Emergency.
QUESTION 83 OF 201
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
Explanation: Article 356 deals with President's Rule in states.
QUESTION 84 OF 201
Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of:
Explanation: Article 360 deals with the declaration of Financial Emergency.
QUESTION 85 OF 201
A National Emergency under Article 352 can be declared on grounds of war, external aggression, or:
Explanation: A National Emergency under Article 352 can be declared on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
QUESTION 86 OF 201
The 44th Amendment replaced the term "internal disturbance" with which term as grounds for National Emergency?
Explanation: The 44th Amendment replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' as grounds for National Emergency.
QUESTION 87 OF 201
How many times has a National Emergency (Article 352) been declared in India so far?
Explanation: A National Emergency (Article 352) has been declared three times in India so far.
QUESTION 88 OF 201
Financial Emergency under Article 360 has been declared in India:
Explanation: Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been declared in India.
QUESTION 89 OF 201
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) provided constitutional status to which institution?
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions.
QUESTION 90 OF 201
The 74th Constitutional Amendment (1992) provided constitutional status to which institution?
Explanation: The 74th Constitutional Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to municipalities (urban local bodies).
QUESTION 91 OF 201
The three-tier Panchayati Raj system includes the Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti (block level), and:
Explanation: The three-tier Panchayati Raj system includes the Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad.
QUESTION 92 OF 201
The Gram Sabha, a key component of local self-governance, consists of:
Explanation: The Gram Sabha consists of all registered voters of the village.
QUESTION 93 OF 201
The 101st Constitutional Amendment introduced which major indirect tax reform in India?
Explanation: The 101st Constitutional Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
QUESTION 94 OF 201
The Union List, State List, and Concurrent List together form which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: The Union List, State List and Concurrent List together form the Seventh Schedule.
QUESTION 95 OF 201
Residuary powers of legislation (subjects not listed in any list) in India rest with:
Explanation: Residuary powers of legislation in India rest with the Union (Parliament).
QUESTION 96 OF 201
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in which states?
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule deals with tribal area administration in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
QUESTION 97 OF 201
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than which northeastern group?
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas administration in states other than the Sixth Schedule's northeastern states.
QUESTION 98 OF 201
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the officially recognized:
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule lists the officially recognized languages of India.
QUESTION 99 OF 201
How many languages are currently listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule currently lists 22 languages.
QUESTION 100 OF 201
Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was effectively abrogated in which year?
Explanation: Article 370, granting special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was effectively abrogated in 2019.
QUESTION 101 OF 201
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is established under which article of the Constitution?
Explanation: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is established under Article 338.
QUESTION 102 OF 201
The National Commission for Backward Classes derives its constitutional basis primarily from which article?
Explanation: The National Commission for Backward Classes derives its constitutional basis from Article 338B.
QUESTION 103 OF 201
Article 356, allowing President's Rule, has been invoked in Indian states over how many times cumulatively (approximate, historically)?
Explanation: Article 356 (President's Rule) has been invoked in Indian states over 100 times historically.
QUESTION 104 OF 201
The landmark S.R. Bommai case (1994) laid down guidelines regarding the use of which constitutional provision?
Explanation: The S.R. Bommai case (1994) laid down guidelines regarding the use of Article 356 (President's Rule).
QUESTION 105 OF 201
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established under which legislation?
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
QUESTION 106 OF 201
The Right to Information Act, granting citizens access to government information, was enacted in which year?
Explanation: The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005.
QUESTION 107 OF 201
The Lokpal, an anti-corruption ombudsman institution at the central level, was established under legislation passed in which year?
Explanation: The Lokpal, a central anti-corruption ombudsman, was established under legislation passed in 2013.
QUESTION 108 OF 201
The National Green Tribunal, dealing with environmental disputes, was established under legislation passed in which year?
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal was established under legislation passed in 2010.
QUESTION 109 OF 201
The Central Information Commission, overseeing RTI implementation at the central level, was established under which act?
Explanation: The Central Information Commission was established under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
QUESTION 110 OF 201
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended only once so far, by which amendment?
Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended only once, by the 42nd Amendment (1976).
QUESTION 111 OF 201
The chairman of the Constitution's Drafting Committee, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, is often referred to as the:
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, chairman of the Drafting Committee, is referred to as the 'Father of the Indian Constitution'.
QUESTION 112 OF 201
The Objectives Resolution, which laid the philosophical foundation of the Constitution, was moved by:
Explanation: The Objectives Resolution, laying the Constitution's philosophical foundation, was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru.
QUESTION 113 OF 201
The Constituent Assembly was formed based on the recommendations of which mission/plan?
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly was formed based on the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
QUESTION 114 OF 201
Dr. Rajendra Prasad served as the President of which key constitutional body before becoming India's first President?
Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad presided over the Constituent Assembly before becoming India's first President.
QUESTION 115 OF 201
The Indian Constitution describes India as a "Union of States" rather than a "Federation of States," reflecting that:
Explanation: India is described as a 'Union of States' rather than a 'Federation', reflecting that states cannot secede from the Union.
QUESTION 116 OF 201
The concept of "Single Citizenship" in the Indian Constitution (as opposed to dual citizenship in some federations) was borrowed from:
Explanation: The concept of Single Citizenship in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the United Kingdom.
QUESTION 117 OF 201
Which amendment to the Indian Constitution is known as the "Mini Constitution" due to its wide-ranging changes?
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment (1976) is known as the 'Mini Constitution' due to its wide-ranging changes.
QUESTION 118 OF 201
The 44th Amendment (1978) primarily aimed to reverse excesses introduced by which earlier amendment?
Explanation: The 44th Amendment (1978) primarily aimed to reverse excesses introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
QUESTION 119 OF 201
The 91st Constitutional Amendment (2003) placed a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers to not exceed what percentage of the total house strength?
Explanation: The 91st Constitutional Amendment (2003) limited the Council of Ministers' size to 15% of house strength.
QUESTION 120 OF 201
The Governor of an Indian state is appointed by:
Explanation: The Governor of an Indian state is appointed by the President.
QUESTION 121 OF 201
The minimum age for a person to become Governor of a state is:
Explanation: The minimum age to become Governor of a state is 35 years.
QUESTION 122 OF 201
The Chief Minister of a state is appointed by:
Explanation: The Chief Minister of a state is appointed by the Governor.
QUESTION 123 OF 201
The concept of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is enshrined in which article?
Explanation: The concept of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers is enshrined in Article 75.
QUESTION 124 OF 201
The Solicitor General of India assists which higher law officer?
Explanation: The Solicitor General of India assists the Attorney General.
QUESTION 125 OF 201
The National Commission for Women was established under legislation passed in which year?
Explanation: The National Commission for Women was established under legislation passed in 1990.
QUESTION 126 OF 201
Which body is responsible for the delimitation of parliamentary and assembly constituencies in India?
Explanation: The Delimitation Commission is responsible for delimiting parliamentary and assembly constituencies.
QUESTION 127 OF 201
The Model Code of Conduct during elections is enforced by:
Explanation: The Model Code of Conduct during elections is enforced by the Election Commission of India.
QUESTION 128 OF 201
The 61st Constitutional Amendment (1989) reduced the voting age in India from 21 to:
Explanation: The 61st Constitutional Amendment (1989) reduced the voting age in India from 21 to 18 years.
QUESTION 129 OF 201
The system of Proportional Representation is used in India for the election of which body's members?
Explanation: Proportional Representation is used in India for Rajya Sabha and President/Vice-President elections.
QUESTION 130 OF 201
The Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections in India use which electoral system?
Explanation: Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections in India use the First-Past-the-Post system.
QUESTION 131 OF 201
The term "Judicial Review" refers to the power of courts to:
Explanation: Judicial Review refers to courts' power to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.
QUESTION 132 OF 201
The doctrine of "Separation of Powers" divides governmental authority among which three branches?
Explanation: The Separation of Powers doctrine divides governmental authority among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
QUESTION 133 OF 201
The concept of "Rule of Law," central to Indian constitutional philosophy, was significantly developed by which legal scholar?
Explanation: The Rule of Law, central to Indian constitutional philosophy, was significantly developed by legal scholar A.V. Dicey.
QUESTION 134 OF 201
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of:
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) allows a public-spirited person to approach courts on behalf of those unable to do so themselves.
QUESTION 135 OF 201
The concept of "Judicial Activism" in India gained particular prominence during which decade?
Explanation: Judicial Activism in India gained particular prominence during the 1980s.
QUESTION 136 OF 201
The Collegium system for appointment of judges evolved primarily through which set of judgments?
Explanation: The Collegium system for judicial appointments evolved primarily through the 'Three Judges Cases'.
QUESTION 137 OF 201
The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), intended to replace the Collegium system, was struck down by the Supreme Court in which year?
Explanation: The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
QUESTION 138 OF 201
The Indian Constitution can be amended through which three broad procedures?
Explanation: The Indian Constitution can be amended through simple majority, special majority, or special majority with state ratification.
QUESTION 139 OF 201
Amendments affecting the federal structure of the Constitution require ratification by at least how many state legislatures?
Explanation: Amendments affecting the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
QUESTION 140 OF 201
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
Explanation: Article 368 deals with the procedure for constitutional amendment.
QUESTION 141 OF 201
The concept of "Cooperative Federalism" in India is exemplified by institutions such as the:
Explanation: Cooperative Federalism in India is exemplified by institutions like the GST Council and NITI Aayog.
QUESTION 142 OF 201
NITI Aayog, which replaced the Planning Commission, was established in which year?
Explanation: NITI Aayog, which replaced the Planning Commission, was established in 2015.
QUESTION 143 OF 201
The Planning Commission of India, predecessor to NITI Aayog, was established in which year?
Explanation: The Planning Commission of India was established in 1950.
QUESTION 144 OF 201
The Zonal Councils, promoting inter-state cooperation, were established under which legislation?
Explanation: The Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
QUESTION 145 OF 201
The Inter-State Council, established to facilitate Centre-State coordination, was set up under which constitutional article?
Explanation: The Inter-State Council was set up under Article 263 to facilitate Centre-State coordination.
QUESTION 146 OF 201
The concept of "Judicial Independence" is protected in India through provisions ensuring judges cannot be removed except through:
Explanation: Judicial Independence is protected by ensuring judges can only be removed through an impeachment-like parliamentary process.
QUESTION 147 OF 201
A Supreme Court or High Court judge can be removed through a motion requiring approval by which majority in Parliament?
Explanation: A Supreme Court or High Court judge can be removed through a motion requiring special majority approval in both houses.
QUESTION 148 OF 201
The concept of "Contempt of Court" empowers courts to punish actions that:
Explanation: Contempt of Court empowers courts to punish actions undermining the authority or dignity of the judiciary.
QUESTION 149 OF 201
The Right to Constitutional Remedies, described by Ambedkar as vital, is provided under which article?
Explanation: The Right to Constitutional Remedies, described by Ambedkar as vital, is provided under Article 32.
QUESTION 150 OF 201
Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or:
Explanation: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
QUESTION 151 OF 201
Article 16 of the Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of:
Explanation: Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
QUESTION 152 OF 201
Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits which practice?
Explanation: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor.
QUESTION 153 OF 201
Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children below what age in hazardous occupations?
Explanation: Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in hazardous occupations.
QUESTION 154 OF 201
Article 29 of the Constitution protects the interests of minorities regarding:
Explanation: Article 29 protects the interests of minorities regarding language, script and culture.
QUESTION 155 OF 201
Article 30 of the Constitution grants minorities the right to:
Explanation: Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
QUESTION 156 OF 201
The concept of "Reasonable Restrictions" on Fundamental Rights allows the state to limit rights in the interest of:
Explanation: Reasonable Restrictions allow the state to limit Fundamental Rights in the interest of public order, morality and security.
QUESTION 157 OF 201
The Golaknath case (1967) initially held that Parliament could not amend which part of the Constitution?
Explanation: The Golaknath case (1967) initially held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights.
QUESTION 158 OF 201
The 24th Constitutional Amendment (1971) was passed in response to which earlier Supreme Court judgment?
Explanation: The 24th Amendment (1971) was passed in response to the Golaknath case judgment.
QUESTION 159 OF 201
The Minerva Mills case (1980) further clarified and strengthened which constitutional doctrine?
Explanation: The Minerva Mills case (1980) further clarified and strengthened the Basic Structure Doctrine.
QUESTION 160 OF 201
The Maneka Gandhi case (1978) significantly expanded the interpretation of which fundamental right?
Explanation: The Maneka Gandhi case (1978) significantly expanded the interpretation of Article 21.
QUESTION 161 OF 201
The concept of "Due Process of Law," though not explicitly in the original text, was read into Article 21 through which case?
Explanation: The concept of Due Process of Law was read into Article 21 through the Maneka Gandhi case.
QUESTION 162 OF 201
The Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in which landmark case?
Explanation: The Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right under Article 21 in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case (2017).
QUESTION 163 OF 201
The Vishaka Guidelines, addressing workplace sexual harassment, were laid down by the Supreme Court in which year?
Explanation: The Vishaka Guidelines, addressing workplace sexual harassment, were laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997.
QUESTION 164 OF 201
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, formalizing the Vishaka Guidelines into law, was passed in which year?
Explanation: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, formalizing the Vishaka Guidelines, was passed in 2013.
QUESTION 165 OF 201
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was established to provide:
Explanation: The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) provides free legal aid to weaker sections of society.
QUESTION 166 OF 201
Lok Adalats, an alternative dispute resolution mechanism, derive their legal basis from:
Explanation: Lok Adalats derive their legal basis from the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
QUESTION 167 OF 201
The concept of "Public Interest Litigation" (PIL) in India was pioneered significantly by which Supreme Court judges?
Explanation: Public Interest Litigation was pioneered significantly by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer.
QUESTION 168 OF 201
The office of the Lokayukta functions as an anti-corruption ombudsman at which level of government?
Explanation: The office of the Lokayukta functions as an anti-corruption ombudsman at the state level.
QUESTION 169 OF 201
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), an anti-corruption body, was established initially through an executive resolution in which year?
Explanation: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established through an executive resolution in 1964.
QUESTION 170 OF 201
The CVC was granted statutory status through legislation passed in which year?
Explanation: The CVC was granted statutory status through legislation passed in 2003.
QUESTION 171 OF 201
The Prevention of Corruption Act, a key anti-corruption legislation, was originally enacted in which year (with later amendments)?
Explanation: The Prevention of Corruption Act was originally enacted in 1988.
QUESTION 172 OF 201
The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Act was passed in which year, replacing the colonial-era Land Acquisition Act of 1894?
Explanation: The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition Act was passed in 2013.
QUESTION 173 OF 201
The Consumer Protection Act, safeguarding consumer rights in India, was most recently comprehensively updated in which year?
Explanation: The Consumer Protection Act was most recently comprehensively updated in 2019.
QUESTION 174 OF 201
The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, protecting individuals reporting corruption, was passed in which year?
Explanation: The Whistle Blowers Protection Act was passed in 2014.
QUESTION 175 OF 201
The concept of "One Nation, One Election" refers to a proposal for:
Explanation: 'One Nation, One Election' refers to a proposal for simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies.
QUESTION 176 OF 201
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established under legislation passed in which year?
Explanation: The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was established under legislation passed in 2005.
QUESTION 177 OF 201
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act was most significantly amended following public reaction to which 2012 incident?
Explanation: The Juvenile Justice Act was significantly amended following public reaction to the 2012 Delhi gang rape (Nirbhaya) case.
QUESTION 178 OF 201
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was enacted in which year?
Explanation: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was enacted in 2012.
QUESTION 179 OF 201
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, commonly called the Forest Rights Act, was passed in which year?
Explanation: The Forest Rights Act was passed in 2006.
QUESTION 180 OF 201
The 42nd Amendment added which new subjects to the Concurrent List, reflecting shifted priorities?
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment added Education and Forests to the Concurrent List.
QUESTION 181 OF 201
Which schedule of the Constitution allocates seats to states in the Rajya Sabha?
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution allocates seats to states in the Rajya Sabha.
QUESTION 182 OF 201
The Second Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
Explanation: The Second Schedule deals with salaries and allowances of the President, Governors, judges and other officials.
QUESTION 183 OF 201
The Third Schedule of the Constitution contains the:
Explanation: The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations.
QUESTION 184 OF 201
The First Schedule of the Constitution lists:
Explanation: The First Schedule lists the names of States and Union Territories and their territorial extent.
QUESTION 185 OF 201
The concept of "Pith and Substance" doctrine is used by courts to determine:
Explanation: The Pith and Substance doctrine helps courts determine the true subject matter of a law in legislative competence disputes.
QUESTION 186 OF 201
The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation prevents legislatures from doing indirectly what they:
Explanation: The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation prevents legislatures from doing indirectly what they cannot do directly due to lack of competence.
QUESTION 187 OF 201
The concept of "Repugnancy" under Article 254 deals with conflicts between:
Explanation: The concept of Repugnancy under Article 254 deals with conflicts between Union and State laws on Concurrent List subjects.
QUESTION 188 OF 201
The 61st Amendment and subsequent reforms have made the minimum voting age in India:
Explanation: The 61st Amendment made the minimum voting age in India 18 years.
QUESTION 189 OF 201
The National Food Security Act, guaranteeing subsidized food grains, was passed in which year?
Explanation: The National Food Security Act was passed in 2013.
QUESTION 190 OF 201
The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) was passed in which year to regulate the real estate sector?
Explanation: The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) was passed in 2016.
QUESTION 191 OF 201
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, a major economic reform legislation, was enacted in which year?
Explanation: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was enacted in 2016.
QUESTION 192 OF 201
The concept of "Money Bill" is defined under which article of the Constitution?
Explanation: The concept of Money Bill is defined under Article 110 of the Constitution.
QUESTION 193 OF 201
Article 112 of the Constitution deals with which important annual financial document?
Explanation: Article 112 deals with the Annual Financial Statement, commonly known as the Union Budget.
QUESTION 194 OF 201
The Consolidated Fund of India, into which all government revenues are credited, is established under which article?
Explanation: The Consolidated Fund of India is established under Article 266.
QUESTION 195 OF 201
The Contingency Fund of India, used for unforeseen expenditure, is established under which article?
Explanation: The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267.
QUESTION 196 OF 201
The Panchayati Raj system in India traces its philosophical roots to which committee's recommendations, first implemented in 1959?
Explanation: The Panchayati Raj system traces its roots to the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, first implemented in 1959.
QUESTION 197 OF 201
The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977-78) on Panchayati Raj recommended a system with how many tiers?
Explanation: The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977-78) recommended a two-tier Panchayati Raj system.
QUESTION 198 OF 201
The concept of reservation for women in Panchayati Raj institutions mandates a minimum of what percentage of seats?
Explanation: Reservation for women in Panchayati Raj institutions mandates a minimum of one-third (33%) of seats.
QUESTION 199 OF 201
The Sarkaria Commission, examining Centre-State relations, submitted its report in which year?
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission, examining Centre-State relations, submitted its report in 1988.
QUESTION 200 OF 201
The Punchhi Commission, a more recent review of Centre-State relations, submitted its report around which year?
Explanation: The Punchhi Commission, a more recent review of Centre-State relations, submitted its report around 2010.
QUESTION 201 OF 201
The concept of 'Judicial Review' in India can examine the constitutional validity of both legislative and executive actions, a power derived primarily from which article?
Explanation: Judicial Review's power to examine constitutional validity of laws is derived primarily from Article 13 and related provisions.
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